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THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA  NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

032/1  CHEMISTRY 1

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Year : 2021

Instructions

l. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.

3. Sections A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

6. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H = 1, O =16, C =12, N = 14, Na =23, Ca = 40, Cl = 35.5, Pb= 207.

image

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature = 273 K.

image

SECTION A ( 15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

l. For each of the items (i) — (x) , choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which among the following sets of materials can cause fire outbreak?

  • Oxygen, carbon dioxide and fuel
  • Oxygen, heat and fuel

image

  • Oxygen, foam and fuel
  • Oxygen, heat and foam

(ii)What type of fire occurs in vapour air mixture over the surface of flammable liquids?

  • Class A        
  • Class B       
  • Class D 

(iii)Which one of the following processes is a chemical change?

  • Butter melts on warm toast
  • Water evaporates from the surface
  • Juice in a bottle freezes
  • Food scrap turns into compost
  • Wet cloth dries

(iv) The simplest formula of a compound formed when combining 36 g of magnesium and 14 g of nitrogen is:

  • Mg 3 N 2 

(v)What is the IUPAC name for H 2 S0 4 ?

  • Sulphuric acid
  • Sulphuric (VI) acid
  • Hydrogen sulphate
  • Dihydrogen sulphate
  • Hydrogen tetrasulphate

(vi)     What type of chemical reaction is represented by the equation  Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)  + H 2 (g)?

  • Displacement reaction
  • Combination reaction
  • Precipitation reaction
  • Decomposition reaction
  • Redox reaction

(vii)   What does the random movement of pollen grains suspended in air demonstrates?

  • Matter is lighter in nature.
  • Matter is solid in nature.
  • Matter is particulate in nature.
  • Matter is gaseous in nature. 
  • Matter is wave in nature.

(viii)"Organic matter is among the components of soil." Which role does it play?

  • Improving water infiltration of the soil.
  • Accelerating break down of organic matter.
  • Reserving nutrients thus providing soil fertility.
  • Converting of nitrogen into nitrates.
  • Providing a room for organic material such as nylons.

(ix) Which of the following sets represents isotopes of an element?

chemistry essay answer 2021

 (x)What is to be considered when choosing the best method to extract a particular metal from its ore?

  • The metal 's economic value.
  • Its availability in an area.
  • The metal's ore impurities.
  • How it reacts with other materials. 
  • The metal's shininess.

2.      Match the uses of First Aid Kit items in List A with the respective items in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B ( 70 Marks)

image

3.      (a) Different salts behave differently when heated. Use balanced chemical equations to show how carbonates and sulphates behave when subjected to heat.

(b)      Ammonium nitrate does not react like other nitrates (with exception of the alkali metal nitrates). Explain this fact with the aid of chemical equations. (7 marks)

4.        (a)      A Form IV student was asked to react phosphate ion and sodium ion forming compound W. Suggest the IUPAC name of W and find the oxidation state of phosphorous in W.

(b)      Calculate the percentage composition of lead in the compound Pb(N03)2. (7 marks)

5.      (a) How can the society minimize the energy loss encountered in the use of charcoal and fire wood? Give two points.

(b)      State whether the following processes are exothermic or endothermic.

(i)        Dissolving ammonium chloride in water.

(ii)          Photosynthesis.

(iii)          Combustion reactions.

(iv)          Mixing water and potassium chloride.

(v)                Mixing water and strong acids such as concentrated sulphuric acid.

6.      (a)        Briefly explain the concept of scientific procedure.

(b)      What is the importance of the scientific procedure in daily life? Give two points.(7 marks)

7.      Use the following components to construct a diagram of water cycle: clouds, animal, water in the soil, rain, plants, water spring, rivers, lakes and water vapour in the atmosphere.(7 marks)

8.        Suppose that two gas jars; one containing gas "A" and another one containing gas "B" are made available to you. Gas "A" is used in hardening of margarine whereas gas "B" is used by mountain climbers.

(a)        What tests will you conduct to identify each of the two gases?

(b)        Give two physical properties and three chemical properties that can be used to distinguish gas "A" from gas "B".            (7 marks)

image

(a)             Briefly explain the differences in the results of experiments A and B.

(b)             What factors can be adjusted to increase the yield of the product?      (7 marks)

10.      If 2.0 g of CaC0 3  were reacted with excess dilute HCI acid; (a) what volume of C02 would be given out at s.t.p?

(b)        Calculate the mass of C0 2  produced.      (7 marks)

11.      (a)    In three points, differentiate homogenous mixtures from heterogeneous mixtures.

(b)        By giving four points, justify the fact that common salt is a compound. (7 marks)

12.      (a)        Give three ways in which environmental destruction is likely to occur during extraction of metals.

(b)      The following equations represent the steps involved in the conversion stages of iron extraction in Bussener converter. Arrange the equations in chronological order from the first step to the last by writing the respective letter so as to get a complete explanation of the conversion stage.

     V: 2Cu 2 0(S) +      Cu 2 S(S)→          6Cu (l) + S0 2  (g)

   W:    FeO (l) + SiO 2 (g) → FeSiO 3

     X: 2Cus(s) +30 2  (g)   →                    2Cu20(s) +2S0 2  (g)

image

SECTION C (    15 Marks)

Answer  one (1)  question from this section.

13.        By giving six points, explain how to maintain soil fertility of a particular area.(15 marks)

14.          How electrolysis is applied in industries? Describe by giving six points.    (15 marks

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SSCE WAEC Chemistry Objective Questions and Answers

CHEMISTRY Paper 1 (Objective Test Questions) Paper 1 will last for 1 hours Use HB pencil throughout.

Answer All Questions Each question is followed by four options lettered A to D. Find out the correct options for each question and shade in pencil on your answer sheet, the answer space which bears the same letter as the option you Chosen. Give only one answer to each question. An example is given below

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Chemistry WAEC Objective Questions

Which of the following elements reacts with water? A. Carbon B. Iodine C. Sodium D. Sulphur

The correct answer is Sodium, which is lettered C and therefore answer space C would be shaded. [A] [ B ] [C] [ D ]

Think carefully before you shade the answer spaces; erase completely any answer you wish to change.

Which of the following raw materials is used in the plastic industry? A. Ethene B. Methane C. Sulphur D. Hydrogen

Which of the following organic compounds can undergo both addition and substitution reactions? A. Petane B. Benzene C. Propane D. Hexane

Which of the following equations represents a redox reaction? A. AgNO 3 (aq) + KCl(ag)->AgCl(s)+ KNO 3 (aq) B. HNO 3 (aq)+ NaOH(aq) -> NaNO 3 (aq) + H 2 O(l) C. CaCO 3 (s) -> CaO(s) + CO 2 (g) D. 2H 2 S(g) + SO 2 (g) -> 2H 2 O(I) + 3S(g)

T he process of extraction of iron from its ore is A. decomposition. B. oxidation. C. reduction. D. sublimation.

What is the solubility of a salt if 0.4 g of it is obtained on evaporating 200 cm3 of its saturated solution to dryness? A. 0.08 gdm -3 B. 2.00 gdm -3 C. 8.00 gdm -3 D. 80.00 gdm -3

An acidic salt has A. double anions in its aqueous solution. B. a single cation in its aqueous solution. C. hydrogen ions in its aqueous solution. D. hydrogen atoms in its aqueous solution.

A reaction is endothermic if the A. reaction vessel feels cool during the reaction. B. enthalpy change is negative. C. bond forming energy exceeds bond breaking energy. D. heat of formation of reactants exceeds heat of formation of products.

In which of the following compounds does hydrogen form ionic compounds? A. CH 4 B. HCl C. NH 3 D. NaH

Consider the following reaction equation: Br 2 + 2KI -> 2KBr + I 2 . Bromine is acting as A. an oxidizing agent. B. a reducing agent. C. an acid. D. a base.

An organic compound has the empirical formula CH 2 . If its molar mass is 42 gmol-1 what is its molecular formula? [H = 1.0, C = 12.0] A. C 2 H 4 B. C 3 H 4 C. C 3 H 6 D. C 4 H 8

Ethene is produced from ethanol by A. decomposition. B. hydrolysis. C. ozonolysis. D. dehydration.

Consider the following equilibrium reaction: 2 AB(g) + B 2 (g) -><- 2AB 3 (g) AH = -XkJmol -1 The backward reaction will be favored by A. a decrease in pressure. B. an increase in pressure. C. a decrease in temperature. D. an introduction of a positive catalyst.

What is the mass of solute in 500 cm 3 of 0.005 moldm -3 H 2 SO 4 ? [H =1.0, O = 16.0, S = 32.0] A. 0.490 g B. 0.049 g C. 0.245 g D. 0.0245 g

Pure water can be made to boil at a temperature lower than 100 °C by A. reducing its quantity. B. decreasing the external pressure. C. distilling it. D. increasing the external pressure.

Consider the following sketch of the solubility curve of some substances. Note: scroll down to download the free chemistry waec questions in pdf copy to view the sketch

At what temperature does the solubility of KNO 3, equal that of NaNO 3 ? A. 0°C B. 20 °C C. 30 °C D. 40 °C

When a salt is added to its saturated solution, the salt A. dissolves and the solution becomes super saturated. B. dissolves and the solution becomes unsaturated. C. precipitates and the solution remains unchanged. D. dissolves and crystals are formed.

When substance X was added to a solution of bromine water, the solution became colorless. X is likely to be A. propane. B. propanoic acid. C. propyne. D. propanol.

The preferential discharge of ions during electrolysis is influenced by the A. mechanism of electrolysis. B. electrolytic reactions. C. nature of the electrode. D. type of electrolytic cell.

The valence electrons of 12 Mg are in the A. 3s orbital. B. 2px orbital. C. 2s orbital. D. 1s orbital.

Stainless Steel is an alloy comprising of A. Fe and C. B. Fe and Ni. C. Fe, C and Ni. D. Fe, C and Al.

The number of hydrogen ions in 1.0 dm 3 of 0.02 moldm -3 tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid is [NA = 6.02 x 1023] A. 1.2 x 10 22 B. 1.2 x 10 23 . C. 2.4 x 10 22 . D. 2.4 x 10 23 .

The most suitable substance for putting out petrol fire is A. water. B. carbon(IV)oxide. C. fire blanket. D. sand.

The following factors would contribute to environmental pollution except A. production of ammonia. B. manufacture of cement. C. photosynthesis. D. combustion.

The position of equilibrium in a reversible reaction is affected by A. particle size of the reactants. B. vigorous stirring of the reaction mixture. C. presence of a catalyst. D. change in concentration of the reactants.

The diagram below illustrates a conical flask containing water and ice.

NOTE: scroll down and download the free chemistry pdf past questions to see the diagram

Which of the following statements about the diagram is correct? A. The water is at a lower temperature than the ice B. Energy is absorbed when the ice changes to water C. Energy is released when the ice changes to water D. The water molecules vibrate about a fixed point

Which of the following statements best explains the differences between a gas and a vapor? A. Unlike gases, vapors are liquids at room temperature B. Unlike gases, vapor can easily be condensed into liquids C. Unlike gases, vapour is readily converted into solids D. Vapours are generally denser than gases

Consider the following reaction equation: 2HCl + Ca(OH) 2 –> CaCl 2 + H 2 O. What is the volume of 0.1 moldrn -3 HCl that would completely neutralize 25cm 3 of 0.3 moldm -3 Ca(OH) 2 ? A. 150 cm 3 B. 75 cm 3 C. 30 cm 3 D. 25 cm 3

Cu and HNO 3 are not suitable for preparing hydrogen gas because of their A. reactivity and oxidation respectively. B. conductivity and corrosiveness respectively. C. melting point and reduction respectively. D. electro negativity and solubility respectively.

Which of the following formulae cannot be an empirical formula? A. CH B. CH2 C. P2O5 D. N204

One of the criteria for confirming the purity of benzene is to determine its A. heat capacity. B. boiling point. C. mass. D. colour.

Want more Chemistry Objective Test Questions like this? Get the Complete WAEC Chemistry Exam Past Questions and Answers (Obj and Essay) in PDF Format from us.

SSCE WAEC Chemistry Theory Questions

Chemistry Paper 2 Paper 2 will last for 2 hours This paper consists of two sections A and B. Answer one questions from Section A and three questions from Section B.

Credit will be given for clarity of expression and orderly presentation of material.

SECTION A (1ai) Define the term fermentation. (1aii) Name the catalyst that can be used for this process.

(b) Name two factors which determines the choice of an indicator for an acid-base titration. (c) Consider the following reaction equation: [Fe + H2S04 ] FeS04 + H2. Calculate the mass of unreacted iron when 5.0g of iron reacts with 10cm3 of 1.0 moldrrv3 H SO [Fe = 56.0] (d) Name one: (di) Heavy chemical used in electrolytic cells; (dii) Fine chemical used in textile industries.

(e) Explain briefly how a catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction. (f) (i) Write the chemical formula for the product formed when ethanoic acid reacts with ammonia. (ii) Give the name of the product formed in 1 (f) (i)..

(g) List three properties of aluminum that makes it suitable for the manufacture of drink can. (h) State two industrial uses of alkylalkanoates. (i) List two effects of global warming. (j) Name two steps involved in the crystallization of a salt from its solution.

Chemistry WAEC Essay Questions

SECTION B. 2ai. State the collision theory of reaction rates. 2aii.Using the collision theory, explain briefly how temperature can affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

bi. Sketch a graphical representation of Charles’s law. bii. Calculate the volume of oxygen that would be required for the complete combustion of 2.5moles of ethanol at s.t.p. [ molar volume at s.t.p = 22.4dm3]

ci. Define esterification. cii. Give two uses of alkanoates. ciii. Give the products of the alkaline hydrolysis of ethyl ethanoate.

d. A tin coated plate and a galvanized plate were exposed for the same length of time. di. Which of the two plates corrodes faster? dii. Explain briefly your answer in 2 (d) (i).

Want more Chemistry Theory Questions like this? Get the Complete WAEC Chemistry Exam Past Questions and Answer (Obj and Essay) in PDF Format from us.

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Chemistry Paper 1 Questions and Answers - KCSE 2020 past papers

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Instructions to Candidates

  • Answer all the questions
  • Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used
  • All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
  • Candidates should answer the questions in English.
  • Write the electron arrangement of element A.  (1 mark) 
  • Give the formula of the compound formed when element A reacts with sulphur. (S = 16.0) (1 mark)

Experiment and answer questions

  • At the end of the experiment, solid B changed from white to blue. Explain. (1 mark)
  • The other product of the burning candle formed a white precipitate with the calcium hydroxide solution. Write an equation for the reaction.  (1 mark)
  • State the role of apparatus C.    (1 mark)
  • air   (1 mark)
  • water.  (1 mark)
  • Other than collecting a gas by displacement of air or water, state another method that can be used to collect a gas. (1 mark)
  • State the property of carbon(II) oxide that was demonstrated in the experiment. (1 mark)
  • Draw the structural formula of 2-methylbut-2-ene. (1 mark)
  • State mark the observation made.  (1 mark)
  • Name the type of the reaction that took place.   (1 mark)
  • sodium chloride: (1 mark)
  • ammonium nitrate. (1 mark)
  • Select two compounds that can be used to illustrate the amphoteric nature of an oxide. (1 mark)
  • Give a reason for the answer in (b). (1 mark)
  • Draw a labelled diagram of the setup of apparatus that can be used to electrolyse lead (ll) bromide.   (3 marks)
  • State the difference between a covalent bond and a dative covalent bond.
  • Using dots (•) and crosses ( X ) to represent electrons, draw a diagram to show the bonding in ammonia.  (1 mark)
  • Using the diagram in (b), state one property that makes ammonia react with hydrogen ion.     1 mark)

reaction scheme on copper turnings

  • State the reagent that is added in step 1 (1 mark)
  • ldentify gas H  (1 mark)
  • Write the formula of the complex ion in solution J. (1 mark)
  • Write an equation for the reaction. (1 mark)
  • Sodium chlorate(V) and sodium chloride have different solubilities in water. Name a method that can be used to separate the salts.(1 mark)
  • Give one use of sodium chlorate(V). (1 mark)
  • State the observations made. (2 marks)
  • Excess aqueous sodium hydroxide was added to 2cm 3 of the solution obtained in the reaction. Write an ionic equation for the reaction that occured.    (1 mark)
  • Classify the elements as either metals or non-metals. Give a reason. (1 mark)
  • least reactive     (½mark)
  • most reactive     (½ mark
  • Give a reason for the answer b (i)      (1 mark)

New q 13b

  • ΔH of the reaction    (1 mark)
  • activation energy. (1 mark)
  • On the same axis., sketch a curve that would be obtained if the reaction was carried out without a catalyst.  (1 mark)
  • Describe how the sodium carbonate is obtained from the products of the carbonator.  (1½ marks)
  • One of the by-products of the Solvay process is calcium chloride. Explain how the calcium chloride is formed in this process. (1½marks)
  • CFCs  (1 mark)
  • DDT (1 mark)
  • State the method that can be used to separate propanone and water.  (1 mark)
  • Describe how a mixture of water and octane can be separated.       (2 marks) 
  • 6.2g of phosphorus was reacted with excess oxygen to form phosphorus( V) oxide. Determine the mass of the oxide formed. (0 = 16.0; P 31.0)  (2 marks)
  • Give the structural formula of compound V.      (1 mark)
  • Other than the use of the catalyst, name another condition necessary for this reaction.    (1 mark)
  • This type of reaction is called hydrolysis or hydration. State another name that can be used to describe the reaction.(1 mark)
  • Soluble salt (1 mark)
  • Insoluble salt (1 mark )
  • Describe how a soluble salt is obtained from its solution (1 mark)
  • State one factor that affects the preferential discharge of ions at the cathode (1 mark)
  • cathode: (1 mark)
  • anode (1 mark)
  • A volume of sulphur IV) oxide gas diffused from an apparatus in 96 seconds. Calculate the time taken by an equal volume of carbon(IV) oxide to diffuse under the same conditions. (C = 12.0:    O=16.0; S = 32.0) (1½ mark)
  • The rate of diffusion of neon was found to be 1.45 times faster than that of an equa! volume of gas X at room temperature. Determine the relative formula mass of gas X (Ne = 20.0).  (1½ marks)
  • X    (1 mark)
  • Y   (1 mark)
  • number of moles of oxygen required for the complete combustion. (1 mark)

new q 26 a

  • ldentify X.         (1 mark)
  • Write a nuclear equation for the decay.    (1 mark)

new q 26 a

  • Give the name of the polymer.  (1 mark)
  • Draw the structure of the monomer used.  (1 mark)
  • Give one use of the polymer.   (1 mark)

new Figure 5 q28

  • a 1      (1 mark)
  • a 3       (1 mark)
  • State why elements with a 1  and a 2 outermost electrons do not react with each other. (1 mark)

chemistry essay answer 2021

Marking scheme

  • No. of electrons;   40−21=19✓½
  • Electron arrangement;  2.8.8.1✓½    Accept 2 8 8 1,   2,8,8,1,   2:8:8:1
  • A 2 S or SA 2  or K 2 S or SK 2

Experiment and answer questions

  • Solid B becomes hydrated hence turns from white to blue ✓1 OR
  • Burning candles produces water✓½ which combines with solid B to make it hydrated✓½
  • CO 2 (g) + Ca(OH) 2 (aq) → CaCO 3 (s) + H 2 O(l) (wrong state - penalise symbols ½)
  • To suck the gaseous product from the system  Accept; to pull/pumping the products/remove the products  Rej; to push
  • Density of the gas ✓½
  • If the gas is lighter than air - upward delivery or downward displacement of air ✓½ OR
  • If the gas is denser than air-downward delivery. (Accept either of the explanation.)
  • Solubility in water
  • If the gas is insoluble or slightly soluble in water. (Accept correct explanation without stating)
  • Gas syringe
  • Solidification-SO 2
  • Condensation
  • Collection over mercury
  • Liquidification
  • Reducing agent/Reducing property.

New structure of 2 methylbut 2 ene

  • Bromine water is decolourised.
  • Orange/brown/yellow bromine turns to colourless (Emphasis colourless) Rej. If initial colour is not original colour of bromine
  • Addition reaction.    Rej. Halogenation or Bromination process
  • D and G or 2 and 13 ✓½each  Marked independently
  • Amphoteric oxides react with both strong acids/acids and alkalines OR
  • Amphoteric oxides behave as acids or bases.

electrolysisi of LeadIIbromide

  • Electrodes are above the electrolyte
  • Anodes and Cathodes correctly labelled
  • In covalent shared electrons are contributed by both species/atoms while in dative, the shared electrons are from on of the atoms or species.

Ammonia bonding

  • Nitrogen in Ammonia contain a lone pair of electrons. OR
  • Presence of lone pair of electrons/ unshared pair of e -

reaction scheme on copper turnings

  • Conc. Sulphuric(VI) acid, Conc. H 2 SO 4 or Sulphuric(VI) acid Rej. Dilute or H 2 SO 4(aq)
  •  SO 2  or sulphur (IV) Oxide.
  • (Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ) 2+
  • Write an equation for the reaction. (1 mark) 3Cl 2(g) + 6NaOH (aq)  → NaClO 3(aq) + 5 NaCl (aq) + 3H 2 O (l)
  • Fractional crystallisation.
  • Manufacture of dyes
  • Bleaching agent
  • Treatment of sewage
  • In fireworks and explosives/matches.
  • Fizzing/Effervescence/production of gas bubbles ✓1
  • Colourless solution formed  ✓½
  • Brown residue/solid  ✓½
  • Zn 2+ (aq) + 4OH − (aq) → (Zn(OH) 4 ) 2− (aq) OR
  • Zn(OH) 2) (s) + 2OH − (aq) → (Zn(OH) 4 ) 2− (aq)
  • Metals ✓½ Ionic radius✓½ is smaller than corresponding atomic radius/ vice versa
  • least reactive  M  ✓½
  • most reactive   N   ✓½ 
  • The more the ionization energy, the less the reactive or the less the ionization energy the more the reaction OR use atomic radius to explain. (Accept a lot of heat is required/less heat is required)

heat arrow

  • Mixture turns yellow  ✓1 /yellow colour intensifies
  • Decrease in temperature,forward is favoured ✓½ /more N 2 O 4 is formed since the reaction is exothermic ✓½

on decomposition of hydrogen peroxide

  • ΔH = A−B  ✓1  
  • E A = C−B ✓1 Or Diagram award ½

peroxide decomposition

  • The products are filtered ✓½ to obtain NaHCO 3 as a residue.
  • The residue is heated to obtain NaHCO 3  ✓1 OR
  • The products are filtered then dried ✓1
  • Calcium carbonate decompose to form CaO and CO 2  
  • CaO/Ca(OH) 2 reacts with water and then NH 4 Cl to form CaCl 2 OR Use of equations correctly
  • Chlorofluorocarbons
  • Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane.
  • Fractional distillation/ distillation
  • Place the mixture on a separating funnel/ dropping funnel/ burette
  • Run down the bottom layer.
  • Discard the interphase  OR
  • Use of a dropper
  • Suck the top layer
  • Suck the interphase and discard it (Penalise ½ if interphase is not discarded)
  • 6.2g of phosphorus was reacted with excess oxygen to form phosphorus( V) oxide. Determine the mass of the oxide formed. (0 = 16.0; P 31.0)  (2 marks) 4P(s) + 5O 2 (g) → 2P 2 O 5 (g) Moles of P =   6.2    =0.2 ✓½                        31 Moles of P 2 O 5 = ½ × 0.2 = 0.1moles R.F.M of P 2 O 5  = (31× 2) + ( 16×5) =142 Mass of P 2 O 5 = 142 × 0.1 = 14.2g

New structural formula of compound V

  • Heat or pressure of 60-70 atmosphere -Temp of 250-300°C. Rej warming
  • Addition or oxidation
  • HNO 3 or BaO
  • Pb(NO 3 ) 2 and NaCl
  • Heat/boil to evaporate  ✓½ the mixture to saturation
  • Allow to cool ✓½
  • Filter the residue.
  • Nature of the electrolyte
  • Concentration
  • Position of the element in the reactivity series
  • Position of the electrochemical series
  • 2H + (aq) + 2e − → H 2 (g)  OR
  • 4H + (aq) + 4e −  → 2H 2 (g)
  • 4OH − (aq) →2H 2 O(l) + O 2 (g) + 4e −

calculation on CO2

  • X = 3  (1 mark)
  • Y =7   (1 mark)

26 a radioactive decay

  • polyphenylethene or polystyrene

New Structure of monomer used

  • Packaging materials
  • Ceiling boards

new Figure 5 q28

  • a 1 1    (1 mark)
  • a 3   8       (1 mark)
  • Have a tendency to loose electrons.
  • Both form positive ions.
  • Both of them are metals.

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CHEMISTRY THEORY AND OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR 2021/2022 WAEC EXAM

CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

Chemistry Theory And Objective: Questions  & Answers For 2022/2023 WAEC Exam. Are you a student who wants to make a good grade in Chemistry? Here are the WAEC Chemistry questions and everything you need to know about 2021 WAEC Chemistry. This post provides provided for you with all you need to know in Chemistry Paper 1 (Objective) and Chemistry 2 (Essay).

Table of Contents

Welcome to the Chemistry Theory and Objective: Questions & Answers for the 2022/2023 WAEC Exam. This comprehensive guide has been designed to assist students in their preparation for the upcoming WAEC Chemistry examination. It presents a collection of theory and objective questions along with their corresponding answers, covering the essential topics and concepts outlined in the WAEC syllabus. By studying and practicing these questions, you will gain a solid foundation in chemistry and improve your chances of achieving excellent results in the exam. So let’s delve into the world of chemistry and embark on a journey of learning and success.

The Question & Answers: CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

Furthermore, below are the WAEC Chemistry questions. Read them properly. In fact, they will make you ready to score high in your WAEC Chemistry exam.

The West Africa Examination Council (WAEC) is an examination body in Nigeria. It has the statutory power to conduct the Senior Secondary Certificate Examination in May/June and the General Certificate in Education in November/December.

THE OBJECTIVE OF POST: CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

Because people are asking about WAEC Chemistry and objective questions and answer 2022/2023. In fact, they are also asking for JAMB 2022 CHEMISTRY questions and answers pdf, The solutions are the objectives of this post. This post, therefore, takes care of those students who plan to do well in the WAEC exams this year.

The best way to read this post is to read it by clicking the highlighted topics for referencing. So check out these related topics that follow.

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CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

General tips and advice to help you prepare for your exams effectively..

  • Study the syllabus: Familiarize yourself with the syllabus for your respective exams. Understand the topics and concepts that are likely to be covered and focus your preparation accordingly.
  • Review past papers: Practice solving past exam papers to get an idea of the types of questions that may be asked. This will help you become familiar with the exam format and identify any areas where you need further improvement.
  • Understand the concepts: Chemistry involves understanding fundamental concepts and principles. Ensure you have a strong foundation by studying the theory thoroughly. Take notes, create summaries, and use diagrams or visual aids to help you grasp complex concepts.
  • Practice problem-solving: Chemistry often requires application and problem-solving skills. Practice solving numerical problems and chemical equations regularly to strengthen your problem-solving abilities. This will also help you become more familiar with the calculations and techniques needed for the exam.
  • Seek clarification: If you come across any challenging topics or concepts, don’t hesitate to seek clarification from your teachers, classmates, or online resources. Understanding the material thoroughly will boost your confidence during the exam. CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM..
  • Create a study schedule: Plan your study sessions and allocate sufficient time to each topic based on its importance and your level of understanding. Break down your study material into manageable chunks and set realistic goals to stay motivated.
  • Collaborate with peers: Consider forming study groups with classmates or friends who are also preparing for the exams. Discussing and explaining concepts to each other can enhance your understanding and retention of the material.
  • Utilize available resources: Take advantage of textbooks, reference materials, online resources, and educational platforms that provide study materials, practice questions, and tutorials specific to your exam. These resources can provide valuable insights and additional practice opportunities. CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.
  • Practice time management: During the exam, time management is crucial. Practice solving questions within the allocated time limits to improve your speed and accuracy. This will ensure that you can complete the exam within the given time frame.
  • Stay focused and maintain a healthy lifestyle: Avoid distractions and create a conducive study environment. Take regular breaks, exercise, eat nutritious meals, and get enough sleep to keep your mind and body in optimal condition for studying.

Remember, success in any exam is a result of consistent effort, effective preparation, and a positive mindset. Good luck with your exams!

WAEC Chemistry Questions and Answers 2022:

Furthermore, the questions below are the WAEC Chemistry Questions. Going through them will make you ready to score high in your WAEC 2021 Chemistry Examination. Congratulations.

  • How many alkoxy alkanes can be obtained from the molecular formula C4 H4O4

ANSWER: C (3)

  • Element Y has two isotopes Y and Y present in the ratio 1:3. The relative atomic mass of Y would be

ANSWER: C (21.5)

  • What condition favors the formation of the product for the endothermic reaction, N2O4(g) —><—– 2NO2(g)

A. Decrease in pressure

B. A decrease in volume

C. An increase in pressure

D. A constant volume

ANSWER: A ( Decrease in pressure)

  • Elements X and Y have electronic configurations 1S22S22P4 and 1S22S22P63S23P1 respectively. When they combine the formula of the compound formed is

ANSWER: B (Y2X3)

CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM

  • A solution of 0.20 mole of NaBr and 0.20 mole of MgBr2 in 2.0 dm3 of water is to be analyzed. How many moles of Pb(NO3 )2 must be added to precipitate all the bromide as insoluble PbBr2

A. 0.30 mol

B. 0.10 mol

C. 0.20 mol

D. 0.40 mol

ANSWER: A (0.30 mol)

  • Na2CO3 + HCl —-> NaHCO3 + NaCl. The indicator most suitable for this reaction should have pH equal to.

ANSWER: D (9)

  • A saturated solution of silver trioxocarbonate (IV), was found to have a concentration of 1.30 x 10-5 moldm-3 . The solubility product of the trioxocarbonate (IV) is

A. 8.79 x 10-15

B. 1.69 x 10-10

C. 1.82 x 10-11

D. 9.84 x 10-10

ANSWER: A (8.79 x 10-15)

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR THE 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM

  • 100.0g of KClO3 was added to 40.0 cm^3 of water to give a saturated solution at 298K. If the solubility of the salt is 20.0 moldm^-3 at 298K, what percentage of the salt is left undissolved? {K= 39, Cl = 35.5, O = 16}
  • Tetraoxosulphate (VI) ions are the final test using

A. acidified silver nitrate

B. acidic barium chloride

C. lime water

D. dilute hydrochloric acid

ANSWER: D (dilute hydrochloric acid)

  • When platinum electrodes are used during the electrolysis of copper (II) tetraoxosulphate (IV) solution, the solution gets progressive

D. Atmospheric

ANSWER: A (Acidic)

WAEC 2022/2023 Chemistry Theory Questions

PAPER 2 (ESSAY) SECTION A

  • (a) When calcium oxide and coke are heated in an electric furnace, the products are carbon (ii) oxide and calcium carbide (CaC2), write the equation for this reaction.

(b) The addition of water to calcium carbide leads to the formation of calcium hydroxide and ethyne. Write the equation for the production of ethyne.

  • Calculate the percentage by mass of silicon tetrachloride. [2 marks]
  • Ammonia, NH3, and phosphine, Ph3, are the hydrides of the first two elements in group 5. (a) Draw a dot and cross diagram for the ammonia molecule. [2 marks] (b) Sketch and explain the shape of the ammonia molecule. [3 marks]
  • The first ionization energy of chlorine is +1260KJmol-1. (a) Define the term first ionization energy. (b) State and explain the general trend in the values of the first ionization energy for the elements across the period, sodium to argon in the periodic table.
  • Compound A consists of carbon and hydrogen only. The compound was found to contain 80% carbon by mass. (a) Calculate the empirical formula of compound A using the data above. (b) The relative molecular mass of compound A was found to be 30. Use this information to deduce the molecular formula of compound A. [H = 1.00 C = 12.00]
  • State two factors other than a change in temperature or the use of a catalyst that influence the rate of a chemical reaction.
  • Identify the solid remaining when each of the following is heated. (a) lithium trioxonitrate (V) (b) potassium trioxonitrate (V) (c) calcium trioxonitrate (V)

CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For the 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM

  • An aqueous solution has a pH of 4.0. (a) (i) What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the solution? (ii) What effect will it have on litmus paper? (iii) Which of the following salt solutions would have the same effect on litmus? Give a reason for your answer. NH4Cl(aq); NaCl(aq) ; CH3OON(aq). (b) (i) Differentiate between a fine chemical and a heavy chemical. (ii) Name two sources of air pollution. (iii) Suggest one way of reducing air pollution in cities
  • (a) (i) Explain briefly the fermentation process. (ii) Write a balanced equation for the fermentation of glucose. (iii) What substance must be added to glucose solution to ferment it? (iv) Explain briefly why tightly corked glass filled to the brim with palm wine shatters on standing. (b) State one industrial application of each of the following methods of separation: (i) Crystallization; (ii) Fractional distillation. (c) Explain the following terms: (i) Saponification; (ii) Esterification. (d) Write a balanced equation to illustrate each of the terms in (c). (e) i) What is hydrocarbon compound? (ii) Name two principal sources of hydrocarbons.

CHEMISTRY THEORY AND OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR 2021/2022 WAEC EXAM

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM

  • (a) Two elements represented by the letters Q and R have atomic numbers 9 and 12 respectively. (i) Write the electron configuration of R. (ii) To what group does Q belong in the periodic table? (iii) Write the formula of the compound formed when Q combines with R. (iv) Explain briefly, why Q is a good oxidizing agent. (v) State whether R would be expected to form acidic or basic oxide. (b) (i) State two assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases. (ii) When some solids are heated, they change directly into the gaseous state. What name is given to this phenomenon? (iii) List two substances that exhibit the phenomenon mentioned in (ii). (iv) Write an expression to show the mathematical relationship between the rate of diffusion of a gas and its vapor.

READ ALSO FOR CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

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HOW TO PARTNER WITH US: CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

In conclusion, mastering the Chemistry theory and objectives is crucial for success in the upcoming 2022/2023 WAEC exam. By diligently studying and understanding the key concepts, practicing with a wide range of questions, and seeking clarification when needed, students can enhance their understanding of this fascinating subject. Remember, a strong foundation in Chemistry will not only boost your performance in the exam but also equip you with valuable knowledge for future academic pursuits. Stay focused, stay determined, and embark on this journey with confidence. Best of luck in your preparations and may you excel in the upcoming WAEC exam! CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

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Home » WAEC Chemistry Answers 2024 Essay/OBJ Questions is Out

2024 WAEC Chemistry Questions & Answers for Essay and Objective Released.

The Waec chemistry answers 2024 essay and objective questions for the West African Examination Council (WAEC) Chemistry SSCE exam paper scheduled to be written on Tuesday, 12th December, 2023 can now be studied here.

The 2023 Chemistry Essay answer paper will start at 9:30 am and will last for 2hrs while the Objective exam will commence at 11:30 pm and will last for 1hr.

In this post, we will be posting the West African Senior School Certificate Examinations (WASSCE) Chemistry questions for candidates who will participate in the examination from past questions.

waec chemistry questions 2020

Continue reading below.

WAEC Chemistry Answers 2024.

PAPER 2 [Essay] Answer any FOUR questions. Write your answers on the answer booklet provided.

1. (a) (i) What is the common name given to the group VII elements? (ii) Name the hydrides of the first two elements in group VII. (iii) State three chemical properties of group VII elements.

(b) Copy and complete the following table

(c) (i) Define each of the following processes: nuclear fission; nuclear fusion.                                                                     (ii) Give one use of each process in 1(c)(i)

(d) (i) List three types of radiation that are produced during radioactivity. (ii) Arrange the radiations listed in 1(d)(i) in order of increasing: penetrating power; ionizing power.

ANS: (a) (i) Halogens         (ii)  Hydrogen fluoride; Hydrogen chloride      (iii) high electron affinity/strong oxidizing agents/electron acceptor – highly electronegative; – react with hydrogen to form acid; – form salts with metals; – react with alkalis to form salts; – react with water to form acids;  – displacement of lower halogens from their acids/salts; – react with hydrocarbon to form alkyl halides. (b)

(c)(i) I. Nuclear fission – splitting of a heavy nucleus into two smaller nuclei of similar mass with the release of a large amount of energy and radiation. II. Nuclear fusion – a combination of smaller nuclei to form a large nucleus with the release of large amounts of energy and radiation. (ii) I. Used to generate electricity/nuclear bomb/production of new elements/production of radioisotopes. II. Used to produce nuclear weapons/atomic bombs/production of new elements/production radioisotopes.                                                                                                             (d) (i)  alpha, beta, gamma OR α ,    β, (ii)  I.    α   <    β    <  increasing penetrating power II.   <β     <   α increasing ionizing power.

2. (a) (i) What is the structure of the atom as proposed by Rutherford? (ii) Distinguish between the atomic number and the mass number of an element. (iii) Explain briefly why the relative atomic mass of chlorine is not a whole number.

(b) (i) What is meant by first ionization energy? (ii) List three properties of electrovalent compounds (iii) Consider the following pairs of elements: 9F and 17CL; 12Mg and 20Ca. Explain briefly why the elements in each pair have similar chemical properties.

(c) Explain briefly the following terms using an appropriate example in each case (i) homologous series; (ii) heterolytic fission.

(d) State the indicator(s) which could be used to determine the end-point of the following titrations: (i) dilute hydrochloric acid against sodium hydroxide solution; (ii) dilute hydrochloric acid against ammonium hydroxide solution; (iii) ethanoic acid against sodium hydroxide solution.

(e) A solid chloride E which sublimed on heating reacted with an alkali F to give a choking gas G. G turned moist red litmus paper blue.  Identify E, F and G.

ANS:  (a) (i) The atom has a small/ tiny positively charged centre /nucleus with electrons surrounding the space around the centre.   (ii) Atomic number of an element is the number of protons/electrons in an atom of the element while the mass number is the sum of the protons and neutrons in the atom of the element. (iii) Chlorine atom is made up of a mixture of isotopes and the relative atomic mass of chlorine is the average of its isotopic masses.

(b) (i) Is the (minimum) energy required to remove one mole of an electron from one mole of gaseous atom (to form one mole gaseous charged ion (ii) High melting /boiling point; Ability to conduct electricity in the molten state or in solution; Solid at room temperature; Soluble in water or polar solvents /insoluble in non-polar solvents. (iii) Atoms of the elements in each pair have the same number of electrons in their outer-most shell therefore similar chemical properties.

(c) (i) Is a family of organic compounds: – where successive members differ by –CH2 of the molar mass of 14; – with similar chemical properties; – which conform to the same general formula; – which show a gradation of physical properties; – which have the same general method of preparation. e.g  alkanes, alkenes , alkanols. (ii) Is a process in which a (covalent) bond is broken in such a way that the electron pair is completely transferred to one of the atoms (resulting in the formation of ions) H ÷ CI     →      H+ + Cl-/ HCl ® H+ + Cl- (d)(i) Methyl orange/ methyl red/ phenolphthalein; (ii) Methyl orange/ methyl red; (iii) Phenolphthalein. (e) E   –   NH4Cl F  –  NaOH, KOH, or Ca (OH)2,  Li OH, CsOH, Ba(oH)2, Mg(OH)2 G  –   NH3.

3. (a) (i) Define saturated solution.  (ii) The solubility of KN03 at 20°C was 3.00 mol dm-3 If 67.0g of KN03 was added to 250cm3 of water and stirred at 20°C, determine whether the solution formed was saturated or not at that temperature.

(b) (i) Distinguish between the dative bond and covalent bond.  (ii) Explain why sugar and common salt do not conduct electricity in the solid state.  (iii) State the type of intermolecular forces present in I. hydrogen fluoride; II. argon.  (iv) Consider the compounds with the following structures:  S – H —-N and 0 – H —–N  In which of the compounds is the hydrogen bond stronger? Give a reason for your answer.

(c) (i) State Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure. (ii) If 200cm3 of carbon(IV) oxide were collected over water at 18°C and 700 mmHg, determine the volume of the dry gas at s.t.p.[ standard vapour pressure of water at 18°C = 15 mmHg] 

ANS: (a) (i) Is a solution that contains the maximum amount of solute it can dissolve at a given temperature (in the presence of undissolved solute). (ii) Solubility of KN03 in in g dm-3 = 3.00 x 101 = 303  .. 1000cm3 of saturated solution = 303g  250cm3 of the solution = 303 x 250                                                  1000                                              = 75.8 g Since the quantity of KN03 added (67.0) to 250 cnr’ of water is less than the maximum amount required to form a saturated solution, then the solution is unsaturated.

(b)(i) In a dative bond, only one of the participating atoms/ species donated electrons to be shared by both atoms while in a covalent bond both participating atoms/ species contribute equally to the electrons being shared.  (ii) Sugar is covalent while common salt (NaCl) is electrovalent/ ionic. Electrical conductivity (in compounds) depends on the presence of mobile ions. (iii) The intermolecular forces present in hydrogen fluoride and argon were hydrogen bond and van der Waal’s forces respectively.  (iv) 0 – H —- N has a stronger hydrogen bond because oxygen is more electronegative and smaller in size than sulphur. 

(c)(i) the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases that do not react chemically is equal to the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. (ii) pressure of the dry gas (P 1) = 700 – 15 = 685 mmHg  VI = 200cm 3 , TI = 18°C = 273 + 18 = 291K, P2 = 760 mmHg,  T2 = 273  P1V1  =  P2V2     T1         T2 V2 =  P1V1T 2   =                  P2T1

= 685 x 200 x 273     760 x 291

= 169.1cm 3

4. (a) (i) Define nuclear fission (ii) A certain natural decay series starts with and ends with. Each step involves the loss of an alpha or a beta particle. Using the given information,  deduce how many alpha and beta particles were emitted. (b) Consider the equilibrium reaction represented by the following equation: A2(g)  +  3B2(g)    2AB3(g);    H   =  +  kJmol-1 Explain briefly the effect of each of the following changes on the equilibrium composition; (i)  increase in the concentration of B; (ii) decrease in pressure of the system; (iii) addition of catalyst. (c) The lattice energies of three sodium halides are as follows:

Explain briefly the trend.

(d) State the property exhibited by nitrogen (IV) oxide in each of the following reactions: (i) 4Cu  +  2NO2        4CuO + N2; (ii) H2O+ 2NO2        HNO3   + HNO2

(e) Iron is manufactured in a blast furnace using iron ore (Fe2O3), coke and limestone. Write the equation for the reaction(s) at the: (i) top of the furnace; (ii) middle of the furnace; (iii) bottom of the furnace. (f) (i) Name two products of destructive distillation of coal. (ii) Give one use of each product in 3(f)(i).

5. Copy and complete the following table:

(i) Mention  one  compound that makes water I. temporarily hard; II. permanently hard. (ii) State  one  method that could be used to remove I. only temporary hardness; II. permanent hardness. (iii) Write an equation to show the removal of: I. temporary hardness; II. permanent hardness. (c) (i) List  three  sources of water pollution. (ii) Mention  two  ways by which water pollution can be controlled. (d) state the function of  each  of the following substances in the purification of water for town supply: I. sodium aluminate (III) (NaAIO2); II. lime (calcium hydroxide); III. calculated mount of iodine; IV. sand bed.

6. (a) (i) What is meant by atomicity? (ii) Mention one element in each case which is I. monatomic, II. diatomic, III. tetratomic. (iii) Write the orbital electron configuration of I. 20Ca, II. 9F. a. In which group does each of the elements belong? b. How many unpaired electrons are present in 9F? c. How many electrons are present in 20Ca2+?

(b) (i) Write a balanced equation for the thermal decomposition of KCƖO3. (ii) Mention the catalyst that could be used to increase the rate of reaction in 6(b)(i). (ii) If 5.0 g of KCƖO3 was decomposed by heat, determine the volume of oxygen produced at s.t.p. [Molar gas volume at s.t.p. = 22.4dm3, K = 39,  Cl = 35.5, O = 16]

(c) (i) Mention the products formed when each of the following substances is heated strongly: I. ZnCO3; II. CuSO4.5H2O. (ii) State the colour change observed when each of the residues in 1(d)(i) above is allowed to cool.

7. (a) Describe briefly how each of the following aqueous solutions could be identified in the laboratory: (i) Ammonium trioxocarbonate (IV); (ii)Ammonium chloride. (b) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point and give reasons for your answer: CS2,  NaF and CO2. (c) List two gases each that are: (i) acidic; (ii) highly soluble in water; (iii) oxidized by acidified KMnO4(aq). (d) In a tabular form, compare the elements silicon and sulphur under the following properties: (i) metallic character; (ii) physical state; (iii) conduction of electricity. (e) A cuboid piece of sodium metal measures 3 cm x 4 cm x 10 cm. If the density of sodium is 0.971 g cm-3, calculate the number of atoms in the sodium metal. [ Na = 23; Avogadro constant = 6.02 x 1023 mol_1 ]

waec chemistry answer

8. (a)  (i) Define standard electrode potential. (ii) State two factors that affect the value of standard electrode potential. (iii) Give two uses of the values of standard electrode potential. (iv) Draw and label a diagram for an electrochemical cell made up of                Cu2+/Cu;   = + 0.34                 Zn2+/Zn;   = – 0.76 (v) Calculate the e.m.f of the cell in 8(a)(iv) above (b) (i)  In terms of electron transfer, define I. oxidation; II. oxidizing agent. (ii) Balance the following redox reaction: MnO4-    +  I- H+   I2Mn2+

(c) Classify each of the following oxides as basic, amphoteric, acidic or neutral: (i) Carbon (II) oxide; (ii) Sulphur(IV) oxide; (iii) Aluminium oxide; (iv) Lithium oxide.

(d) What is hydrogen bonding?

WAEC Chem Objective Questions 202 4 .

PAPER 1 [Essay] Answer All questions in this section. Write your answers on the answer sheet provided.

1. Two immiscible liquids with different boiling points can be separated by _____ A. The use of separating funnel B. Evaporation C. Distillation D. Decantation.

2. A mixture of CaCl2 and CaCO3 in water can be separated by  ______ A. Evaporation B. Sublimation C. Distillation D. Decantation.

3. What is responsible for metallic bonding? A. sharing of electrons between the metal atoms B. attraction between the atomic nuclei and the cloud of electrons C. Transfer of electrons from one atom to another D. attraction between positive and negative ions.

4. 25cm3 of 1.5M solution of NaCl are added to 50cm3 of 3M NaCl. The molar concentration of the resulting solution is ________ A. 2.5M       B. 3M             C. 2.25M     D. 4.5M

5. A solution of salt formed from HCl and NH3 solutions is _____ A. Acidic     B. Basic          C. complex          D. Neutral

6. Which of the following elements will burn in excess oxygen to form a product that is neutral to litmus?                                                                              A. carbon          B. Hydrogen          C. Sulphur        D. Sodium

7. A current was passed for 10 mins and 0.2mole of Cu was deposited. How many grammes of Ag will it deposit? (Cu = 64, Ag = 108) A. 43.2g       B. 21.6g         C. 10.8g    D. 5.4g

8. Pollution of underground water by metal ions is very likely in a soil that has high  ________ A. Acidity       B. Alkalinity        C. Chloride content     D. Nitrate content

9. Producer gas is a gas with low caloric value because it contains more ____ A. CO2 than O2      B. N2 than CO     C. CO2 than N2     D. N2 than CO2

10. Silver chloride turns grey when exposed to sunlight because _____ A. The silver ion is reduced to silver B. The silver ion is oxidized to silver C. Silver is a transition metal D. The silver chloride forms complexes in the sun.

11. Which of these compounds exhibits resonance? A. Benzene   B. Ethanol    C. Propene    D. Butyne

15. Hydrolysis of CH3COOCH2CH3 in dilute HCl produces ______ A. CH3COOH + CH3CH3 B. CH3CH2OH + CH3COCl C. CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH D. CH3COOH + CH3CH3

16. Calculate the volume of CO2 measured at s.t.p produced on heating 250g of potassium hydrogen trioxocarbonate (IV) strongly.  (K = 39, H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)  A. 28dm3   B. 2.8dm3  C.5.6dm3  D. 11.2dm3

17. The boiling points of water, ethanol, methylbenzene and butan-2-ol are 373.0K, 351.3K, 383.6K and 372.5K respectively. Which liquid has the highest vapour pressure at 323.0K? A. Water      B. Methylbenzene       C. Ethanol       D. Butan-2-ol

18. The conclusion from Rutherford’s alpha scattering experiment is that ______ A. Atoms are mostly empty space with a small nucleus B. Emissions from radioactive substances consist of three main components C. There is a nuclear pull on orbital electrons D. Electrons are deflected by both magnetic and electric fields.

19. Elements P, Q and R have atomic numbers 9, 16 and 20 respectively. Which of them would gain electron(s) during ionic bonding                              A. Q and R B. P and R C. P and Q D. P, Q and R.

20. Which of the following has the lowest PH? A. 5cm3 of M/10 HCl B. 10cm3 of M/10 HCl C. 20cm3 of M/8 HCl D. 15cm3 of M/2 HCl

21. Which of the following is an acid salt? A. (NH4)2CO3     B. CHCOONa   C. KHSO4     D. MgSO4.7H2O

22. Cr2O2-7 + 14H+  + 6I → 2Cr3+  + 3I2  + 7H2O. The change in the oxidation number of oxygen in the equation above is _______ A. 0       B. 1          C. 2         D. 7

23. During electrolysis of CuSO4 solution using platinum electrodes, which of the following occurs ______ A. Acidity increases at the cathode B. Oxygen is liberated at the cathode C. PH decreases at the cathode D. PH of solution increases.

24. Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace quantities? A. Ca2+    B. Pb2+    C. Mg2+     D. Fe2+

25. The solubility of a salt of molar mass 100g at 20oC is 0.34mol/dm3. If 3.4g of that salt dissolved completely 250cm3 of water at that temperature, the resulting solution is ________ A. A suspension B. Saturated C. Unsaturated D. Supersaturated

26. Catalyst is important in in chemical industry in that ______ A. it affects the purity of the products B. it affects the quantity of the products C. it increases the time for reaching equilibrium D. Bond breaking is slowed down.

27. An alkanioc acid has a molecular mass of 88. Name the acid. (C = 12, O =16, H = 1) A. Propanioc acid B. Botanioc acid C. Pentanioc acid D. But-2-ionic acid

28. Ethyne undergoes the following reactions EXCEPT A. Polymerization   B. Addition  C. Combustion    D. Etherification

Keep following, more questions and answers will be added soon.

PS: Once again, there is nothing like waec chemistry expo. Do not fall victim to scammers online trying to obtain money from you with fake promises of having access to live question paper before the exam. What we have on this page are likely exam questions from waec past questions and answers to serve as a revision guide.

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