Waec Geography Answers 2022 – 3rd June 2022

Waec Geography Answers 2022. Here are the objective and essay answers for Waec 2022 May/June examination, Geography is one of the underrated subjects in the Waec examination, but believe me, to pass and get an A in this particular subject is not really easy unless you are ready to take the necessary steps, and I think you landed on this page because you want to seek for Waec Geography exam help.

WAEC Geography Questions and Answers 2022 (100, WAEC 2022 Geography Questions & Answers [AUTHENTIC], 2022 WAEC Geography Theory Question And Answers For Free, WAEC Geography Answers 2022 for Essay-Obj Questions Out.

GEOGRAPHY OBJECTIVES

01-10 ADCCAACDAA 11-20 ADDDBCCBDA 21-30 CBDCBDADDD 31-40 DACBBDDBCC 41-50 BBDCDCDABC

GEOGRAPHY ESSAY

geography waec essay answer 2022

(1a) (i)Road Transportation (ii)Rail Transportation (iii)Water Transportation (iv)Air Transportation

(1b) (PICK ANY FIVE)

(i) To supply raw materials to other parts of the country e.g East African railway. (ii) To link important cities and facilitate movement of people e.g. Abidjan Ouagadougou. (iii) To link different regions, thus, promoting inter-regional trade e.g. North and South of Nigeria. (iv) To open up new areas for major crop production e.g Jos- Maiduguri (v)To tap resources such as agricultural,mineral and forest. For example , rail network such as Minna,Laura Namoda rail network (vi) For the purpose of administration. (vii) For postal services.

(1c) (PICK ANY FOUR) (i)Deliberate effort should be made towards the expansion of the Raul network ,inorder to generate growth in the economy. Effort should be geared towards improvement of the efficiency of the rail network

(ii) Government should make capital available to railway authorities to enhance efficiency. Training and retraining of personnel should be undertaken from time to time

(iii) Development of international rail transport system should be embarked upon to spur international trade. There should be improved management techniques: new innovations in management should be encouraged.

(iv)Adoption of standard gauges is very important , so as to enhance operational efficiency.Also There should be Faster engines and coaches to facilitate east and quick movement.

(v)There should be embarkment to check steep gradients, uniform gauges should be adopted, double tracks should be constructed and There should also be improved communication system.

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(2a) Urbanization refers to the population shift from rural to urban areas, the corresponding decrease in the proportion of people living in rural areas, and the ways in which societies adapt to this change. WHILE Population density is a measurement of population per unit area, or exceptionally unit volume; it is a quantity of type number density. It is frequently applied to living organisms, most of the time to humans. It is a key geographical term.

(2b) (i) High population density: This problem of high population density is caused due to the heavy rate of migration from rural areas. The rapid population growth has led to an acute shortage of dwelling units which resulted to; overcrowding, traffic congestion, pollution, housing shortages, high rents, poor urban living conditions, low infrastructure services, poverty, unemployment, and poor sanitation which has become pervasive and indeed high crime rate.

(ii) Inadequate infrastructures: One major serious aspect of the urban problem is the poor state of the infrastructures. Some developing countries are still faced with bad road network, lack of power supply, inadequate water supply and some basic amenities.

(iii) Lack of affordable housing: This has led to confrontations with well organized squatters, who take over unoccupied buildings to live rent- free or prevent demolitions. Which has brought about, lack of housing vacancy rate, due to the rapid job growth and housing costs that has increased.

(iv) Flooding: Flooding is a very serious problem faced in urban areas, especially in developing countries, during the rainy seasons. The drainage is poorly constructed leading to difficulty in accessing the roads due to the flood leading to the flood disaster in some developing countries.

(2c) (i) Building Sustainable and Environmentally-friendly Cities: Governments should pass laws that plan and provide environmentally sound cities and smart growth techniques, considering that people should not reside in unsafe and polluted areas.

(ii) Provision of Essential Services: Urban stakeholders must ensure all populations within the urban areas have access to adequate essential social services namely education, health, sanitation and clean water, technology, electricity, and food.

(iii) Creation of More Jobs: To lessen the negative effects of rapid urbanization while at the same time conserving natural ecosystems, private investments should be encouraged so as to utilize natural resources and create more job opportunities.

(iv) Population Control: Key stakeholders in urban areas must provide campaigns and counseling for effective medical health clinics and family planning to help reduce the high rates of population growth.

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3a) 1. Low level technology

2. Produce craft and cherished works of art

3. Bought as presents and souvenirs by tourists

4. Uses local raw materials

5. Small sized establishment and

6. Until recently, non-electrical powered.

(3b) (i) The Local Craft industries are often affected by lack of raw materials which hinders the production. (ii) Poor patronage from the indigenes as a result of poor finishing and low purchasing power. (iii) Lack of modern equipment to reduce the physical human labour in order to increase production. (iv) Problem of transportation to bring the finished products from where that are produced in the interior to the markets in the urban centers.

Chose Any Best (3)

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Table of Contents

Waec Geography Answers 2022 (Essay, Objective, Practical, and Physical)

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Waec Geography Questions and Answers 2022

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Waec Geography 2022 Exam Date

The Waec Geography 2022 examination has been scheduled to hold on Friday 3rd June 2022 from 9:30 am to 4:50 pm for both essay, objective, practical, and physical geography.

Friday, 3rd June 2022

  • Geography 2 (Essay) 09:30am – 11:30am
  • Geography 1(Objective) 11:30am – 12:30pm
  • Geography 3(Practical and Physical Geography) 3:00 pm – 4:50 pm

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Waec Geography Runz 2022 Expo

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Past Geography Questions and Answers Provided by Expobite

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(3) Frank Ogbeche Portrayed Ogeyi as a “Born again Christian”. Ogeyi in the play is a slim fair complexioned and average in height. She is deep rooted in religion and religious matters. One can say that she is a religious fanatic. Her religious and Christian life was illustrated numerous times. Ogeyi in the play vowed to maintain strict Christian and religious doctrines. Thus she was a receptionist in ABC company, but her deligence and decipline to work was outstanding. Ogeyi throughout the play acts religiously and wisely. Her religious life was so much rated in how she would not want anything evil to happen to Aloho even when she is proving adamant to advice. Ogeyi’s religious and Christian life made so brave thus she showed her commitment to maintain strict Christian and religious life in her confession at the police station to ACP Yakubu and Inaku. And her refusal to go any where in order to testify against Chief Halada Ade-Amaka and his cohorts. In court Ogeyi religious and Christian life was also illustrated in the fact that she has been in Jabu before Alho and has seen what ladies in Jabu do for connection and money but refuses to conform to such disdainful act in order to maintain her religious and Christian lifestyle. In a nutshell I can vividly say that Ogeyi is a true and direct contrast to Aloho. Ogeyi illustrated her religious life be accommodation in that she allows Aloho to squat in the same house with her at a place called Panya. Ogeyi has absolute faith, trust and confidence in God. She so believes that in any situation no matter how precarious it may be, God will eventually overturn it. Her excellent advice and sincere warning to Aloho clearly portrays her strong faith in God. Ogeyi has a sincere heart, good upbringing and a promising future.

SECTION B (Answer ONLY ONE Question From This Section) (5) Mrs Johnson contributed heavily in making the play’ A raising in the sun’ a hilarious one. She is like like the neighbour that creates laughter in most plays She is gifted at getting free food out of her neighbours,the youngers. She appear on stage for few minutes and she succeed in getting coffee and a piece of PTE .she looks “pretty” and “slick” She serves as the instrument of comic relief but brings darker tone to the play . she walks up with a newspaper that hints that a black family residing in a white neighborhood has currently been bombed out of their house Despite of her outward friendly disposition to the youngers,she feel repulsive towards them She reasons out that the youngers, suppose that they are too good to live in the mostly black vicinity anymore Mrs Johnson almost appears to enjoy disseminating the news that a black family was bombed by the racist whites.she abandoned the paper in the youngers house on her way out. she is used by the playwright in telling the youngers the hard realities that awaits them for being the first black to move into Claybourne park. She has a genuine intention in warning the younger’s but her manner of approach is offensive. Mrs Johnson’s bomb story depicts her insensitivity and unkindness. Majorly , Mrs Johnson shows the feeling of resentment that some black felt when others began to climb the social economy ladder. The paper Mrs Johnson left in the younger’s apartment serves as evidence that will blame the latter for their rash decision of trying to live in white neighborhood.

SECTION C (Answer ONLY ONE Question From This Section) (9) The poet’s selected use of words is highly contributory to the success of the poem. As a poem whose metaphorical import is very important to it’s appreciation, some words and phrases appear deliberately and and appropriately employed to help the effective delivery of its message. Some examples include “giant” sabre toothed, “shudder home”, “bayonets of tribulation”, “unceasing disaster” and so on. The word giant is deployed to underscore the enormity of size and might of the state. In a way, the word also provides suggestive information about the setting of the poem. It hints at the spar setting being Nigeria because Nigeria is often referred to as “the giant of Africa” due to the population size. The phrase “sabre-toothed” recalls a kind of tiger with sword-like teeth, which is meant to point at the possible effect of a bite or attack from such an animal or its metaphorical referent. While the phrase “bayonets of tribulation” similarly draws attention to the sharp-edged form of violence and other challenges faced by the commoners, “shudders home” comments on their intimidation. The word “unceasing” in “unceasing disaster” clearly emphasizes the despair attending the situation. The title word “Ambush” on its part, suggests the idea that the victims of the realities in the land are either caught unawares or the perpetrators carefully planned carry out their design as wished. The choice of animals used as metaphors for the land is also carefully made to reflect the three main natural abodes of animals viz: land, sky and water. This suggests a total control of every space by the metaphorical referents. =====================================

SECTION D (Answer ONLY ONE Question From This Section) (11) The poem, “pulley” by George Herbert is one that showcases the omniscience of God. In the first stanza, God in the course of making man said viva-vox “a glass of blessing” standing by thus”, let us pour, pour on him (man) all we can, “Let the world riches which despise lie, contract into a span”. Here God says orally in the course of making man, that his sequels-(the trinity) should join him in blessing man by making all other creation/creatures which lie in the world to come under man’s control. Hence, God’s blessing of dominating and subduing the earth to man, as well as that of reproducing their kind on earth . These made him to give man “strength”, “beauty”, “wisdom”, “honour” and “pleasure”. But rest lies in the base of God’s belly because it is a treasure God will use as the “pulley” to make man not to forget Him, Accordingly, if God gives man rest — life devoid of trouble which God sees as a “jewelry’, man would adore God’s gifts instead of God. Again man will Rest (depend) on Nature other creation, not the God of Nature, hence God will lose both man and other creation. Moreover, God decided that he should keep all other blessings (the rest).He showered on him but have them with brain storming (repining restlessness). Hence man According to God will be rich (have all things) and be weary (unhappy), so that if man does not have a stroke of luck and is not fortunate in the course of trying to forget God, weariness may toss him(man) back to my Breast(God). In conclusion the poem explores God’s Sagacious nature over man.

(6) Walter As Mama’s only son, Ruth’s defiant husband, Travis’s caring father, and Beneatha’s belligerent brother, Walter serves as both protagonist and antagonist of the play. The plot revolves around him and the actions that he takes, and his character evolves the most during the course of the play. Most of his actions and mistakes hurt the family greatly, but his belated rise to manhood makes him a sort of hero in the last scene.

Throughout the play, Walter provides an everyman perspective of the mid-twentieth-century African-American male. He is the typical man of the family who struggles to support it and who tries to discover new, better schemes to secure its economic prosperity. Difficulties and barriers that obstruct his and his family’s progress to attain that prosperity constantly frustrate Walter. He believes that money will solve all of their problems, but he is rarely successful with money.

Walter often fights and argues with Ruth, Mama, and Beneatha. Far from being a good listener, he does not seem to understand that he must pay attention to his family members’ concerns in order to help them. Eventually, he realizes that he cannot raise the family up from poverty alone, and he seeks strength in uniting with his family. Once he begins to listen to Mama and Ruth express their dreams of owning a house, he realizes that buying the house is more important for the family’s welfare than getting rich quickly. Walter finally becomes a man when he stands up to Mr. Lindner and refuses the money that Mr. Lindner offers the family not to move in to its dream house in a white neighborhood. ============================

(5a)The writer actively took part in making Mr. Francis

(5b)The students were funds of playing pranks because they thought Mr. Francis was weak.

(5c)The principal checked the writer’s academic records

(5d)The principal was surprised because his academic record spoke well of him.

(5e)Their performance was poor because they didn’t pay attention in class

(5f) (i)Non Clause (ii)Compliments the pronoun “Those”

(5g)Mr. Francis changed their attitude by not participating in cheating, and yet do well.

(5h) Refined – cultured Pranks – practical jokes Puzzled – perplexed Sentence – Punishment Retaliation – revenge Considerably – appreciably ===================================================

(6) (i)Infant mortality can be reduced by exclusively breastfeeding infants for at least six months (ii)Infant mortality can be reduced by maintaining good hygiene. (iii)It can also be reduced by improving the diet of infants with Vitamin A

(b) (i)A disease-free environment is possible by using clean water. (ii)It is also possible by using latrines. (iii)An environment will be free of diseases if food is stored properly. =====================================================

Waec geography questions 2022 – My Scholarship Baze,

Today’s waec geography questions 2022 with answers.

(1) 3 Blessing Close, Bonsaac, Asaba. 12th November, 2020.

Dear Sophia, I received the news of your admission with great excitement. I am very glad you made the merit list; it shows you have been up and doing about your academic work. Dad was so impressed and full of praise for you when he called me on phone. I am aware you have started already. How are you doing? Hope you are coping? I’d like to tell you a few things about the school. Firstly, you are lucky the school has moved to a new location which is nearer to the house. So you won’t have issues with transportation. As you may have seen already, the compound is very big enough to accommodate a standard sporting field. During exam period, I used to prefer there for reading because it is usually less crowded with no noise. The school is very competitive. For instance, if a student failed either Mathematics or English, he or she would be promoted on trial, provided more than half of the other subjects were passed. Failing both key subjects is usually an outright repetition of that class. And when it occurs again, it will be expulsion. So, it is very important you maintain your academic tempo; and if possible, try to improve it because you will be studying with sound students from different academic backgrounds. Secondly, I am proud of the caliber of teachers in that school – always willing to impart and are disciplined too. Always endeavour to listen in class and write only when it is time for writing. Ask questions for clarity. Any other issues you might have, chat me up via mummy’s WhatsApp line. I wish you well in your academics. Try to be among the top ten. I hope to hear from you soon of your progress. Take care! Yours truly, Gidi ============================================

(1a) Report in data base syterm is the formatted result of database queries and contains useful data for decision-making and analysis.

(1b) (i)Database reporting tools allow you to access any database and create reports based upon the stored data.

(ii)Relational databases store data in tabular relations. A database reporting tool typically queries relational databases using SQL over a JDBC or ODBC connection.

(iii)Database reporting on NoSQL big data sources relies on a customized SQL connector, ETL solution, or another native way at accessing data.

(iv)With Logi Report, you have the flexibility to embed reports, dashboards, and visualizations created from any data source.

(1c) (i) Click File > Print.

(ii) To preview each page, click the forward and backward arrows at the bottom of the page. If the text is too small to read, use the zoom slider at the bottom of the page to enlarge it.

(iii) Choose the number of copies, and any other options you want, and click the Print button. ••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• (2a) First, convert AB1¹⁶ into decimal, by using above steps: = AB1¹⁶ = A × 162B × 1611 × 160 = 273710 Now, we have to convert 273710 to octal 2737 / 8 = 342 with remainder 1 342 / 8 = 42 with remainder 6 42 / 8 = 5 with remainder 2 5 / 8 = 0 with remainder 5 Then just write down the remainders in the reverse order to get the answer, The hexadecimal number AB1 converted to octal is therefore is equal to 5261

Waec Geography Practical Answers 2022 – 3rd June 2022

(2b) Decimal equivalent of “1” = 1 × 3^1 = 3 Decimal equivalent of “1” = 1 × 3^2 = 9 Decimal equivalent of “0” = 0 × 3^3 = 0 Decimal equivalent of “1” = 1 × 3^4 = 81 Decimal equivalent of “1” = 1 × 3^5 = 243 Decimal equivalent of “110111” = 243810931 110111 = 337 Now we will convert the fractional part 0.101 to decimal form (Don’t forget that we start from tenths palce to so on..): Decimal equivalent of “1” = 1 × 3^-1 = 0.33333333333333 Decimal equivalent of “0” = 0 × 3^-2 = 0 Decimal equivalent of “1” = 1 × 3^-3 = 0.037037037037037 Decimal equivalent of “0.101” = 0.3333333333333300.037037037037037 0.101 = 0.37037037037037 Here is the final answer, The ternary number 110111.101 converted to decimal is therefore equal to: = 110111.1013 = 33710 + 0.3703703703703710 = 337.3703703703703710

geography waec essay answer 2022

First, convert 5078 into decimal, by using above steps: = 5078 = 5 × 820 × 817 × 80 = 32710 Now, we have to convert 32710 to binary 327 / 2 = 163 with remainder 1 163 / 2 = 81 with remainder 1 81 / 2 = 40 with remainder 1 40 / 2 = 20 with remainder 0 20 / 2 = 10 with remainder 0 10 / 2 = 5 with remainder 0 5 / 2 = 2 with remainder 1 2 / 2 = 1 with remainder 0 1 / 2 = 0 with remainder 1 101000111²

WAEC Geography Questions and Answers 2022/2023 (Obj

•••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• (3ai) Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a common interface that enables communication between devices and a host controller such as a personal computer (PC) or smartphone.

(3aii) (i)It is very easy to install USB device and requires only OS (Operating System). (ii)USB supports different data rates from 1.5 Mbps to 5 Gbps with different distances.

(3b) Loading… •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• ((4ai) Computer graphics deals with creation, manipulation and storage of different type of images and objects.

(4aii) – Choose any 2 i. Computer Art ii. Computer aided drawing. iii. Presentation Graphics.

WAEC Geography Objectives Questions and Answers

(4bii) Interactive Fill tool: Interactive Fill tool to color the fish modified in other videos. To apply an interactive fill, click the Interactive Fill tool, click an object, and then drag. To change the fill colors, drag colors from the color palette to the square handles or to the fill path.

(4biii) Texture Fill tool: A texture fill is a randomly generated fill that you can use to give your objects a natural appearance. You can use existing texture fills, such as water, minerals, and clouds, or you can edit a texture to create your own texture fill. You can use colors from any color model or palette.

(4iii) Evenlope Tool: Envelope Tool is used to create and manipulate “control points” at various points in the track. The control points then determine its volume changes over time.

(4iv) Extrude Tool: The Extrude tool is used in conjunction with an existing 2D shape or shapes in the scene. It allows you to create an extruded 3D shape from the selected 2D shape by defining various parameters. ••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••

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Waec Geography 2022 questions and answers.

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WAEC Geography Questions and Answers 2022/2023 |OBJ & Theory

  • February 3, 2022

With gladness, we share our free WAEC Geography Questions 2021 and the very WAEC Geography answers 2021 expo runs for all WAEC candidates writing this exam today.

Now that you have decided to check out our free WAEC 2021 Geography Questions and Answers material, I’m sure you will benefit a lot from it.

Both the knowledge for the WAEC Physical Geography and the main Geography paper expo solution will be found on this page.

WAEC Geography Answers Expo for Theory and OBJ 2021.

The Geography exam will be divided into three papers as paper 1, paper 2 and paper and each paper will be written separately.

Thus, the paper 1 is the Objectives (OBJ) paper, the paper 2 will be the theory paper (Essay) while the paper 3 is the practical paper (Map Reading).

Expo for the Theory and OBJ papers is our main focus on this page. The paper 3 solution will also be posted on a different page for candidates to access.

Below are the sample practice questions and answers to take note of in the theory and objective sections.

  • WAEC Mathematics Questions and Answers
  • Chemistry Questions and Answers for WAEC
  • Biology Questions and Answers for WAEC

WAEC Geography Objective (OBJ) Questions and Answers

1. What will be the distance between the equator at a latitude of 0 and a town located at N in a city at the latitude of 30N?

The correct answer is A.3,330km

2. ______ is responsible for the formation of Spits?

  • Long share drift and wave depositions
  • Westerly winds
  • Ocean currents and trade winds
  • Tides and Waves
  • Wave erosion

The correct answer is A.

3. The water in an Oasis is derived mainly derived from ___?

  • Underground

The correct answer is D.

4. Which of the following simply explains the formation of fold mountain ____?

  • Volcano forces
  • Compressional forces
  • Tensional forces
  • Eruption forces
  • Faulting forces

The correct answer is B.

5. Where can the ozone layer be found?

  • Stratosphere

The correct answer is E.

6. In the bed of an upper course river, the Circular depression that is usually formed is called ____?

  • Rapid pools
  • Interlocking spurs
  • Plunge pools
  • Udder holes

The correct answer is C.

7. In which of the following process does temperature inversion occurs?

  • Temperature increase with horizontal distance
  • When warmed temperature rises over cold air in the tropics
  • Temperature increase with height
  • During temperature decrement
  • When temperature is constant with height

8. Which of the following substances will be formed at the cooling and solidification of the magma within the earth crust?

  • Lava plateau
  • Cinder cone
  • Composite cone

9. _____ is the gas with the smallest quantity in the atmosphere?

  • Carbon dioxide

Geography Theory Questions and Answers 2021

Below are sample WAEC Geography practice questions for you to answer and practice for the exam.

1.a. List and explain the problems of rail transport in Nigeria.

1b. Suggest the solutions to the problems listed in No.1a

2. Draw the map of Nigeria indicating the mark and names of the following;

  • 2 areas that has low population density.
  • 2 areas that has a high population density.

3.a. List and explain any four (4) problems of high population density in Nigeria?

3.b. List two main causes of air pollution in Nigeria and suggest four solutions to them.

4 b. Explain two effects pollution to the living environment.

5. Explain 3 factors that causes overpopulation.

List two problems associated to sparse population density.

6. Explain the savannah belt of Africa base on location, vegetation characteristics and uses.

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2022 WAEC Geography Practical Study the map extract provided on a scale of I 100,000 and answer the questions...

Study the map extract provided on a scale of I 100,000 and answer the questions that follow. (Attach the topographical map extract to this answer booklet). (a) On the topographical map extract, mark and name the following features using the letters in the bracket: (i) the 1460 Primary Trigonometrical Station (PTS); (ii) col (CL); (iii) gentle (GS); (iv) an area that rises above 1900 feet in the north (ARS); (v) a confluence in the northwest (CF). (b) Calculate the gradient along line A to B, (Use the metric method of measurement) (c) Using evidence from the map, outline three reasons for which FUTUK is likely to be a more important settlement than Lungo.

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Explanation

(a) Marking and Naming of features on the Map Extract:- (i) the 1460 Primary Trigonometrical station (PTS)  (ii)  col (CL) (iii) gentle slope (GS) (iv) an area above 1900 feet in the north (ARS) (v) a confluence in the northwest (CF)  (b) calculation of Gradient Along Line A to B:- Gradient = Vertical Interval                =  V.I                   Horizontal Equivalent          H.E V. I. = 2000 ft 1100 ft  = 9007 ft I inch= 2.54cm V. I. = 900 ft  x 12 x 2.54cm Length of line A to B = 12cm Scale of the map = 1:100,000                             =lcm represents 1 km H. E. = 12cm x 100,000 Gradient      =      900 x 12x2.54cm                            12 x 100,000                     =     27.432                               1,200,000                     =       1                              43.74 Gradient      =  I in 44

(c) Reasons Why FUTUK is Likely to be a more Important Settlement than Lungo- -There is a market (trading centre) at FUTUK but there is none at Lungo -There is a school (educational centre) at FUTUK whereas there is no school at Lungo -There is a minor road at FUTUK whereas only footpaths are in Lungo -FUTUK is a built-up area whereas Lungo is not -FUTUK is larger in size than Lungo -FUTUK is a main town whereas Lungo is a village- FUTUK settlement covers a larger area than Lungo settlement.

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Waec Geography Answers 2022

Geography 2 (Essay) – 09:30am – 11:30am Geography 1(Objective) – 11:30am – 12:30pm

GEOGRAPHY OBJ:

1-10: ADBCACCBBD

11-20: ADDDCDCACA

21-30: CBDCADCDDD

31-40: AACBDDDACC

41-50: ABCCDCDDBC

(3a) (PICK ANY FOUR) (i) A small labour force made up of mainly the family members is employed (ii) Small quantities of articles are produced (iii)Less capital intensive (iv)Irregular hours of work (v) Prices of products are negotiable as it uses simple tools (vi)Irregular income and uses local raw materials mainly.

(3b) (PICK ANY THREE) (i) The Local Craft industries are often affected by lack of raw materials which hinders the production. (ii) Poor patronage from the indigenes as a result of poor finishing and low purchasing power. (iii) Lack of modern equipment to reduce the physical human labour in order to increase production. (iv) Problem of transportation to bring the finished products from where that are produced in the interior to the markets in the urban centers.

(3c) (PICK ANY FIVE) (i)High level of technology: The increase for high volume of trade between developing and advanced countries is due to the high level of technology in the latter.

(ii)High level of savings: The high level of savings in developed countries makes production cheaper; hence they can easily export their products to developing countries.

(iii)Colonial ties: The inclination of some developing countries to their colonial masters has helped to increase the volume of trade between the nations.

(iv)Differences in import duties: There are higher differences in import duties imposed on imported goods in both countries.

(v)Differences in prices of goods: There are higher differences in prices of goods produced by both countries in order to earn foreign exchange. Foreign goods are cheaper than local ones.

(vi)Preference for imported goods: Developing countries like Nigeria has preference for goods produced by advanced countries; hence, the high volume of trades

geography waec essay answer 2022

(5a) (PICK ANY TWO) (i) Root and tuber crops (ii)Cereal crops (iii)Berry (iv) Cash crop

(5b) (PICK ANY FIVE) (i)It is very common in rural areas with abundant farmlands. (ii) It involves small holdings of farmlands. (iii) Food crops like yam, cassava and maize are grown. (iv)Farmlands are left to fallow after one or two years of cultivation. (v) A farmer returns to the farmland after a fallow period of 2-5 years. (vi) It uses slash or burn method for land preparations. (vii) It does not involve the cultivation of cash crops like cocoa, rubber and oil palm. (viii)Bush fallowing is practised where population is very low. (ix) Produce is usually very low and there is little or none for sale.

(5c) (PICK ANY FOUR) (i) It leads to wastage of land which could have been used by allowing it to lie fallow (ii) It leads to land fragmentation due to increase in population (iii)It allows for cultivation of only one seasonal crops like maize,rice and millet (iv) It does not lead to mechanisation of farms i.e it does not allow for large scale mechanised farming (v)It results in poor yield resulting from shorter fallow period as population (vi)It leads to soil erosion when soil is exhausted and it destroys valuable forest resources like timber.

(1a) (i)Road Transportation (ii)Rail Transportation (iii)Water Transportation (iv)Air Transportation

(1b) (PICK ANY FIVE) (i) To supply raw materials to other parts of the country e.g East African railway. (ii) To link important cities and facilitate movement of people e.g. Abidjan Ouagadougou. (iii) To link different regions, thus, promoting inter-regional trade e.g. North and South of Nigeria. (iv) To open up new areas for major crop production e.g Jos- Maiduguri (v)To tap resources such as agricultural,mineral and forest. For example , rail network such as Minna,Laura Namoda rail network (vi) For the purpose of administration. (vii) For postal services.

(1c) (PICK ANY FOUR) (i)Deliberate effort should be made towards the expansion of the Raul network ,inorder to generate growth in the economy. Effort should be geared towards improvement of the efficiency of the rail network

(ii) Government should make capital available to railway authorities to enhance efficiency. Training and retraining of personnel should be undertaken from time to time

(iii) Development of international rail transport system should be embarked upon to spur international trade. There should be improved management techniques: new innovations in management should be encouraged.

(iv)Adoption of standard gauges is very important , so as to enhance operational efficiency.Also There should be Faster engines and coaches to facilitate east and quick movement.

(v)There should be embarkment to check steep gradients, uniform gauges should be adopted, double tracks should be constructed and There should also be improved communication system.

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==================================================

INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ANY FOUR(4) QUESTIONS.

TWO(2) FROM SECTION A & TWO(2) FROM SECTION B.

GOOD LUCK ==================================================

(1a) Optimum population can be defined as the number of people that can be supported by the available resources in an area, so as to achieve the highest possible standard of living.

(1bi) Overpopulation: Overpopulation is defined as a situation whereby the population is considered too large for the available resources, for people to enjoy the highest possible standard of living. In other words, overpopulation refers to a situation where the population exceeds the available resources. Overpopulation provides large labour force for industries. It is also a source of large market for the goods produced by the industries.

(1bii) Mortality rate: Mortality rate is also known as Death rate. It refers to the rate at which people (both adults and children) die in a country. Generally, high death rate leads to population decrease or low population while low death rate leads to increase in population. When medical services are poor, mortality rate tends to increase. High rate of infant mortality leads to a decrease in population.

(1biii) Birth rate: Birth rate is also known as Natality rate. It refers to the rate at which children are being given birth to in that country. Generally, high birth rate may lead to an increase in population or overpopulation while low birth rate can lead to low population. As a result of improved medical services, death rate has reduced while birth rate has improved. Improved standard of living encourages men to marry more wives, thereby increasing birth rate.

(1biv) Population density: Population density is defined as the number of persons per unit area of land or per square kilometer of land. Population density of a country can be expressed mathematically as Population density=Total population /land Area (ii) Total population = population density × land area (iii) Land area= Total population / population density.

(1c) (PROBLEM) (i)Unemployment (ii)Increase in crime rate and social vices like prostitution, kidnapping, robbery (iii)Traffic congestion in terms of pollution

(SOLUTIONS) (i)Creation of more industries and empowerment skills acquisition programme (ii)Creation of more adequate trained security personnel and relates with technology in terms of CCTV cameras installments in all areas of the city to know everything that is going on 24/7 (iii)Expansion of roads and creation or constructing of new roads to make free and easy flow of motorist ==================================================

(2a) (i)Export and Import of goods: Goods produced in Nigeria are exported to other countries through seaports. Also, goods purchased from other countries are also brought into the country through the seaports thereby promoting international trade. (ii)Raw materials for industries: Through seaports, raw materials are imported for industries eg Iron ore from Liberia for iron and steel complex in Abeokuta. (iii)Employment opportunities and fishing: Seaports provides jobs for many people through various activities within the Port eg clearing agents, exporters, and importers. The development of seaports further promotes intensive fishing around the port which also help to reduce unemployment (iv)Revenue to government and tourism centre: Tariffs and demurrage from imported goods safe source of revenue to the government. Seaports are also centre’s of tourist attraction.

(2b) (i)Problem caused by water weeds such as water hyacinths. (ii)Problems of smugglers (iii)Inadequate port facilities (iv)Problem of port congestion

(2c) (i)Security personnel should be trained and equipped to check the activities of smugglers (ii)Permanent solution should be made known ọ check the growth of water hyacinths and its attendant problems. ==================================================

(3a) (i)Traffic congestions: Cluster of industries leads to congestions in traffic, industries, and Housing (ii)Shortage of social amenities: Concentration of industries pave way for the shortage of social amenities as a result of competition (iii)Environmental pollution: It causes environmental pollution due to the presence of so many industries. (iv)Uneven development: The presence of many industries in a particular place causes uneven development especially in areas where industries are not found.

(3b) (Choose Any four) (i)To discourage rural-urban migration (ii)Provision of employment to skilled and unskilled labour (iii)Increased production of goods (iv)Increased earning for rural people (v)Development of rural areas. (vi)It also encourages urban-rural migration ==================================================

(5a) (i)H.E.P. (hydro electric power) hydro electric power is the generation of electricity from water. This is achieved through damming of rivers and the use of river water to turn or drive turbines. An example of H.E.P generation in Nigeria is kainji dam on river Niger Nigeria.

(ii)Coal: A coal-fired power station or coal plant is a thermal power station which burns coal to generate electricity, Example can be found in Kogi and Enugu State with a capacity of 2000MW with 1000mw in each.

(iii)Gas-fired power plant: A gas-fired plant is a thermal power station which burns natural gas to generate electricity. An example can be located in Calabar with 561MW, Egbema power plant in Imo state with 338MW, and Egbin thermal power station location in Egbin with 1320MW.

(5b) (i)Inadequate capital to construct and maintain power generation: Due to lack of funding by the federal government to power supply generation it affects the static power supply and makes the power supply in Nigeria to be floating

(ii)Low level of technology: Low level of technology affect power generation in Nigeria due to low level and we are still following manual method that makes it difficult to have static power supply especially in Gasoline and coal power generation.

(iii)Seasonal floating of river: the volume of river water increases during drying season and reduces during drying season makes power generation to be floating in Nigeria

(5c) (i)Proper funding to the generation of power supply in Nigeria by adding a good amount of money during budgeting. (ii)There should be adequate and proper skilled labour that can handle and execute power generation in terms of technology. The government should train its personnel technology known how. ==================================================

(6a) (i)Increase in Gross National Product (GNP): Industrial sector through its operation like payment of taxes, increases the earnings accruing to the nation. (ii)Infrastructural development: The establishment of an industry in a place stimulate the development of infrastructures like road, telephone, electricity, and pipe-borne water. (iii)Diversification of the economy: The industrial sector helps in different countries to prevent over-dependence on only one product like the present Nigeria’s over-dependence on crude oils

(6b) (i)Poor management (ii)Inadequate transport and communication facilities (iii)Shortage of raw materials (iv)Inadequate power supply

(6c) (i)Stable government and good government policies (ii)Provision of transports and communications facilities (iii)There should be exploitation of raw materials locally for industries (iv)Establishment of more power plants such as Thermal or hydroelectricity plants. ================================================== COMPLETED – GOODLUCK

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WAEC

The West African Examination Council (WAEC) is set to conduct the 2023 Geography examination for Senior Secondary School Certificate Examination (SSCE) candidates. The examination will consist of both the Objectives (Obj) and Essay (Theory) sections, testing candidates’ knowledge and understanding of various geographical concepts and principles. In this article, we provide an overview of the WAEC Geography examination, sample questions and answers, and tips on how to prepare for the test.

geography waec essay answer 2022

Overview of the WAEC Geography 1 & 2 Examination

The WAEC Geography examination is typically divided into two papers:

  • Paper 1: Objective – This paper consists of multiple-choice questions, designed to test candidates’ knowledge of basic geographical concepts, principles, and facts.
  • Paper 2: Essay (Theory) – This paper consists of essay questions that require candidates to analyze, interpret, and apply geographical concepts and principles in various contexts.

The examination is scheduled to take place on specific dates, with Paper 1 (Obj) commencing at 9:30 am, and Paper 2 (Theory) starting at 2:00 pm. The duration of each paper is 3 hours.

Note : This article is for your guidance for proper preparation for your geography WAEC exams 2023

Sample WAEC Geography Questions and Answers 2023

In this section, we provide a compilation of sample questions and answers from various sources, covering both the Objective and Essay sections of the WAEC Geography examination. These sample questions are not meant to be an exhaustive list but serve as a guide for candidates to understand the type of questions they may encounter during the examination.

Objective Questions

  • Villages develop into urban centers when they ____ A. attract more people B. produce enough food C. establish educational institutions D. grow in commerce and industry.

Answer: D. grow in commerce and industry.

  • By how many times will a map measuring 12cm by 7cm be enlarged to make its area 336cm2? A. Twice B. Three times C. Four times D. Five times.

Answer: C. Four times.

  • Eluviation is the process by which _______ A. Soluble substances are removed from the upper layers of the soil B. soluble substances are deposited in the upper layers of the soil C. fine particles are removed from one layer of the soil to another D. fine particles are deposited in the upper layers of the soil.

Answer: A. Soluble substances are removed from the upper layers of the soil.

  • Transhumance is the seasonal migration of livestock ______ A. from the lowlands to the uplands B. from the north to the south following the rains C. in the semiarid steppes D. in search of water and pasture.

Answer: D. in search of water and pasture.

  • Variations in the lengths of day and night over the earth’s surface are due to the _____ A. earth’s inclination to the sun and its revolution B. earth’s inclination to the sun and its rotation C. length of the earth’s orbit D. thickness of the earth’s atmosphere.

Answer: B. earth’s inclination to the sun and its rotation.

Essay Questions

(a) List four modes of transportation.

(b) Identify four constraints to inland water navigation.

(c) In what four ways can the constraint identified in 1(b) above be solved?

(a) The four modes of transportation are:

  • Road transportation
  • Rail transportation
  • Water transportation
  • Air transportation

(b) The four constraints to inland water navigation are:

  • Silting of river mouths
  • Presence of rapids, cataracts, waterfalls/dams
  • Fluctuations in the volumes of rivers
  • Presence of water weeds, e.g., water hyacinth

(c) The four ways to solve the constraints identified in 1(b) are:

  • Dredging to increase the depth of rivers
  • Channelization to avoid rapids and waterfalls
  • Use of dams and reservoirs to control water levels
  • Removal of water weeds with herbicides/machines

(a) Outline two characteristic features of each of the following:

(i) conurbation;

(ii) megapolis.

(b) With specific examples, explain any six functions which settlements perform.

(a) (i) Characteristic features of conurbation:

  • It is an urban settlement
  • Two or more large cities/towns merge to form a conurbation

(ii) Characteristic features of megapolis:

  • It is also called a megalopolis/mega-city/super city
  • It is a highly urbanized region with a population of more than 10 million inhabitants

(b) Six functions which settlements perform:

  • Residential: Providing housing for the population
  • Commercial: Facilitating trade and commerce
  • Industrial: Manufacturing goods and services
  • Administrative: Serving as centers for governance and administration
  • Educational: Providing schools, colleges, and universities for the population
  • Health: Offering hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare facilities for the population

Tips for Preparing for the WAEC Geography Examination

  • Study the syllabus: Familiarize yourself with the WAEC Geography syllabus, which outlines the topics and subtopics to be covered in the examination.
  • Review past questions and answers: Practice with past questions and answers to understand the format of the examination and the type of questions that may be asked.
  • Develop a study plan: Create a study plan that allocates sufficient time to each topic, ensuring that you cover all the required material before the examination.
  • Seek help from teachers and peers: If you encounter difficulty understanding any topic or concept, seek assistance from your teachers or classmates who may have a better understanding of the subject matter.
  • Revise regularly: Regular revision helps to reinforce your understanding of the topics and ensures that you retain the information for longer periods.
  • Stay updated on current geographical events: Keep abreast of current geographical events, as these may be relevant to the examination and help you relate the concepts and principles to real-world situations.

In conclusion, the WAEC Geography examination tests candidates’ knowledge and understanding of various geographical concepts and principles. By following the tips and practicing with the sample questions and answers provided in this article, candidates can adequately prepare for the examination and achieve success in their WAEC Geography examination.

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WAEC Geography Questions and Answers 2024 Objective and Essay

  • Post author: Study Admin
  • Post published: December 3, 2023
  • Post category: School News
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WAEC geography 2024 answers are now available. WAEC geography questions and answers 2024/2025 objective and essay and other exam details for WASSCE 2024 are on this page. See the 2024 WAEC geography answers for both objective and theory below. Get the WAEC geography objective and essay answers here.

The 2024 geography WAEC OBJ and theory questions and answers are provided here for free. All you have to do is to go through the questions and take note of the WAEC geography answers 2024. Read on to find out.

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We have the 2024 WAEC geography questions and our team of experts will soon upload the WAEC geography questions and their accurate answers to help you pass the 2024 WAEC geography examination.

The 2024 WAEC geography theory questions and OBJ will be uploaded any moment from now. So if you are searching for the WAEC geography answers 2024 for objective and theory, then you are on the right page. See WAEC geography objective and essay questions and answers below.

WAEC Geography Answers 2024 Objective and Theory

The West Africa Examinations Council (WAEC) is an examination body in Nigeria that conducts the Senior Secondary Certificate Examination and the General Certificate in Education in May/June and November/December respectively.

The 2024 WAEC geography questions are set from the SS1 to SS3 geography syllabus. So all the questions you will encounter in this year’s examination are in the syllabus, and nearly 90% of the questions are repeated.

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WAEC Geography Questions and Answers 2023/2024 (Objectives and Theory)

Here are the WAEC Geography questions and answers.  You will see WAEC Geography objective, map reading (WAEC Geography Practical) and essay questions for free. You will also understand how WAEC Geography questions are set and every detail you need to know about the WAEC Geography examination .

Table of Contents

2023 WAEC Geography Practical & Physical Answers

Geography Practical & Physical Answers Loading…

geography waec essay answer 2022

4ai) (PICK ANY THREE) (i) Rugged topography (ii) Absence of surface drainage (iii) Depression of varying sizes an d depths (iv) Cliffs (v) Karst springs (vi) Tower karsts (vii) Limestone pavements (4aii) (PICK ANY FOUR) (i) Cave systems (ii) Underground Lakes and Springs (iii) Sinkholes (iv) Stalactites and stalagmites (v) Tunnel systems (vi) Underground waterfalls (4b) (PICK ANY FOUR) (i) Rich in Mineral Resources: Limestone regions are often abundant in mineral resources. Limestone itself is a valuable rock used in construction, agriculture, and industry. Limestone regions may contain deposits of other minerals such as coal, iron, zinc, and phosphates, which contribute to economic development. (ii) Fertile Soil: Limestone weathering over time produces fertile soil with high calcium carbonate content. This type of soil is ideal for agriculture, as it provides essential nutrients and helps maintain soil pH levels. Limestone regions often support productive farmland and vibrant ecosystems. (iii) Water Storage and Supply: Limestone is highly permeable, allowing water to pass through and form underground aquifers. These aquifers act as natural reservoirs, storing water and ensuring a reliable water supply in limestone regions. The porous nature of limestone also facilitates groundwater recharge and reduces surface water runoff, contributing to sustainable water management. (iv) Scientific exploration: Limestone regions are known for their unique karst landscapes, characterized by sinkholes, underground rivers, and caves. These features provide opportunities for scientific exploration and serves as natural habitats for specialized flora and fauna. (v) Flood mitigation: Karst systems which is limestone regions are characterised by, can help regulate water flow and mitigate flooding by absorbing excess water during heavy rainfall. (vi) Tourism and Recreation: Limestone regions often attract tourists due to their scenic beauty and unique geological formations. Caves, cliffs, and underground rivers offer opportunities for activities like cave exploration, rock climbing, hiking, and boating. (vii) Employment opportunites: Tourism in limestone regions can stimulate local economies, create jobs, and foster environmental awareness and conservation efforts. (viii) Building Material: Limestone has been used as a building material for centuries. Its durability, aesthetic appeal, and availability make it a preferred choice for constructing structures, monuments, and architectural landmarks. Limestone regions often have an abundant supply of this versatile rock, making it easily accessible for construction purposes

(6a) (PICK ANY ONE) Climate refers to the long-term average weather conditions of a particular region or area. It is determined by various factors such as temperature, precipitation, humidity, wind patterns, and atmospheric pressure, which persist over a significant period, typically for several decades or more. OR Climate can be described as the long-term atmospheric conditions, including temperature, precipitation, wind, and humidity, that are characteristic of a specific region or area. It represents the average weather patterns observed over an extended period, typically spanning decades or more. OR Climate refers to the long-term average weather patterns observed in a particular region or on a global scale. (6b) (PICK ANY FIVE) (i) Solar radiation (ii) Atmospheric composition (iii) Ocean currents (iv) Land and water distribution (v) Altitude and topography (vi) Greenhouse gases (vii) Aerosols (viii) Earth’s orbit and axial tilt (ix) Volcanic activity (x) Human activities (6c) (PICK ANY FOUR) (i) High Temperature: Equatorial regions experience consistently high temperatures throughout the year. Average temperatures range between 25 to 30 degrees Celsius (77 to 86 degrees Fahrenheit). There is minimal seasonal variation in temperature, and it remains relatively constant year-round. (ii) High Precipitation: Equatorial regions receive abundant rainfall, resulting in a high level of precipitation. Rainfall is evenly distributed throughout the year, with no distinct dry season. (iii) High Humidity: Equatorial climates are characterized by high humidity levels. The combination of high temperatures and abundant rainfall leads to a significant amount of moisture in the air. Relative humidity often exceeds 80%, creating a warm and moist environment. (iv) Dense Vegetation: The equatorial climate fosters the growth of lush and diverse vegetation, including tropical rainforests. The consistent warmth, ample rainfall, and high humidity provide ideal conditions for the growth of a wide variety of plant species. The dense vegetation contributes to the rich biodiversity found in equatorial regions. (v) High Evaporation and transpiration: Due to the high temperatures and abundant moisture, equatorial regions experience significant evapotranspiration. Evapotranspiration refers to the combined process of water evaporation from the surface and transpiration from plants. The warm climate and ample water supply promote this process, leading to high levels of water vapor in the atmosphere. (vi) Low Pressure and Convectional Rainfall: Equatorial climates are characterized by low atmospheric pressure. The intense solar radiation at the equator causes air to rise rapidly, leading to the formation of low-pressure areas. As the warm air ascends, it cools and condenses, resulting in heavy convectional rainfall. (7a) (PICK ONE) Weathering is defined as the gradual breaking down or disintegration of rocks by either physical (mechanical) or chemical process. It is a fundamental geologic process that plays a significant role in shaping the Earth’s landscape over long periods of time. OR Weathering is the process by which rocks, minerals, and other geological materials are broken down or altered near the Earth’s surface.Weathering is a critical component in understanding the formation of landforms and the development of landscapes. (7bi) Frost action: This occurs in polar and temperate regions of the world where rocks on high mountains with cracks or joints collect water or snow in them . When the temperature drops during the night or winter, the water in the cracks freezes and melts during the day or summer. Such repeated freezing and melting widen and deepen the cracks which eventually break-down the rock. (7bii) Exfoliation: Exfoliation is a geological process that occurs as a result of mechanical weathering, which involves the physical breakdown of rocks into smaller fragments without changing their chemical composition. mechanism behind exfoliation involves the expansion and contraction of rocks in response to temperature changes. (8a) (PICK ANY ONE) Solar energy is the renewable energy derived from the radiant heat and light emitted by the Sun. It is a clean and sustainable source of power that can be harnessed using technologies like solar panels to convert sunlight into electricity or solar thermal systems to generate heat. OR Solar energy refers to the radiant energy emitted by the Sun, which can be harnesses and converted into useful forms of energy such as heat and electricity using photovoltaic cells or solar thermal collectors. OR Solar energy refers to the abundant and natural energy produced by the Sun, which can be captured and transformed into usable energy forms. (8b) (PICK ANY THREE) (i) Job creation and economic Benefits: The solar energy sector has significant potential for job creation and economic growth. The installation, maintenance, and manufacturing of solar energy systems contribute to employment opportunities and local economic development. (ii) Low operating costs: Once installed, solar energy systems require very little maintenance or operating costs. As the cost of solar technology continues to decrease, it has become increasingly affordable for individuals and businesses to invest in solar energy systems. (iii) Environmentally Friendly: Solar energy production has minimal environmental impact compared to traditional energy sources like fossil fuels. It produces no greenhouse gas emissions during operation, helping to reduce air pollution and mitigate climate change (iv) Renewable and sustainable: Solar energy is a clean and abundant source of energy that does not deplete natural resources and does not emit harmful pollutants into the environment. This makes it a sustainable and environmentally friendly energy source. (v) Diverse Applications: Solar energy can be used for various applications. It can generate electricity for residential, commercial, and industrial purposes, provide heat for water heating and space heating, and even power remote areas where access to the grid is limited. (vi) Energy Independence: Solar energy provides a level of energy independence that is not possible with traditional fossil fuel-based energy sources. It allows individuals and communities to generate their own power and reduces their dependence on centralized power grids. (8c) (PICK ANY THREE) (i) Intermittent Energy Source: Solar energy is an intermittent energy source, meaning it is only available during daylight hours and may vary depending on weather conditions. Energy storage systems such as batteries or pumped hydro storage can be used to overcome this challenge and provide a continuous flow of energy. (ii) High Initial Costs: Although solar energy is cost-effective in the long run, the initial investment required to install solar panels and other equipment can be high, which may deter some individuals or businesses from investing in solar energy systems. (iii) Land and Space Requirements: Solar energy systems, particularly large-scale solar farms, require a significant amount of land or roof space for installation. This can pose challenges in densely populated areas where suitable land or space may be limited or expensive. (iv) Resource Limitations: The production of solar panels relies on certain materials, such as silicon, that may have limited availability or face potential supply chain constraints. Increased demand for solar energy could put pressure on these resources, leading to potential price fluctuations or supply challenges. (v) Grid Integration and Infrastructure: Integrating solar energy into existing power grids can present challenges. The infrastructure may need upgrades to accommodate the intermittent nature of solar power and ensure efficient distribution. Grid stability and balancing supply and demand can be more complex with a significant influx of solar energy. (vi) Manufacturing and Environmental Impact: The production and disposal of solar panels and other components have environmental implications. The manufacturing process involves energy-intensive activities and the use of certain materials with potential environmental impacts. Proper recycling and waste management practices are crucial to minimize the environmental footprint.

WAEC Geography Objectives Questions and Answers

The 2023 WAEC Geography Answers will be posted here on 2nd June during the examination. WAEC Geography 2023 Answers Loading…

WAEC Geography OBJ

1-10: CBCDDCAABB 11-20: DDCABADAAC 21-30: ABBCACDDDD 31-40: DABDDDADDC 41-50: DABCBDDBCC

(PICK ANY FIVE)

(i) Infrastructure Deficiency: Insufficient infrastructure, including inadequate transportation networks, power shortages, and limited access to water and sanitation facilities, hampers industrial growth in developing countries. The lack of reliable infrastructure makes it challenging to establish and expand industries.

(ii) Limited Access to Capital: Many developing countries face challenges in accessing capital for industrial development. Limited availability of loans, high interest rates, and lack of venture capital impede the growth of industries, especially for small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs).

(iii) Poor Governance and Corruption: Weak governance structures, widespread corruption, and bureaucratic inefficiencies create an unfavorable business environment. These issues lead to uncertainty, lack of transparency, and barriers to entry for industries, discouraging both domestic and foreign investments.

(iv) Inadequate Skilled Workforce: Developing countries often face a shortage of skilled labor, particularly in specialized industries. Insufficient access to quality education and vocational training programs limit the availability of skilled workers required for industrial growth.

(v) Limited Technological Advancements: Many developing countries struggle to keep pace with technological advancements due to limited research and development capabilities, inadequate access to technology, and low adoption rates. The absence of technological innovation inhibits industrial growth and competitiveness.

(vi) Weak Regulatory Frameworks: Inadequate regulations, cumbersome bureaucratic processes, and ambiguous legal frameworks pose significant challenges for industries in developing countries. Unclear property rights, weak intellectual property protection, and excessive red tape hinder investment and growth.

(vii) Inadequate Market Integration: Insufficient integration into regional and global markets restricts the growth potential of industries in developing countries. Trade barriers, protectionist policies, and limited access to international markets limit export opportunities and hinder industrial expansion.

(viii) Environmental Challenges: Developing countries often face environmental issues, including pollution, deforestation, and inadequate waste management systems. These challenges not only impact the well-being of the population but also pose obstacles to sustainable industrial development and investment.

(i) Infrastructure Development: Investing in robust infrastructure, including transportation networks, power grids, and telecommunications systems, creates an enabling environment for industries to thrive. It improves connectivity, reduces logistics costs, and attracts investment.

(ii) Access to Finance: Enhancing access to finance for small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) through microcredit schemes, venture capital funds, and government-backed loan programs enables entrepreneurs to start and expand businesses, driving industrial growth.

(iii) Skill Development and Education: Investing in education and skill development programs ensures a competent workforce capable of meeting the demands of evolving industries. Vocational training, technical education, and entrepreneurship programs equip individuals with the necessary skills for employment and entrepreneurship.

(iv) Regulatory Reforms: Implementing business-friendly policies, reducing bureaucratic hurdles, and streamlining regulations can attract investment and foster a favorable business climate. Simplifying licensing procedures, reducing red tape, and promoting ease of doing business encourages industry growth.

(v) Research and Development Support: Encouraging research and development activities by providing incentives, grants, and tax breaks stimulates innovation and technological advancements. Collaborations between industries, universities, and research institutions facilitate knowledge transfer and foster innovation-driven industries.

(vi) Export Promotion: Supporting export-oriented industries through trade policies, market access initiatives, and export promotion agencies can enhance competitiveness in the global market. Providing export incentives, trade facilitation measures, and assistance with quality standards can boost industrial growth.

(vii) Investment in Renewable Energy: Developing countries can promote the growth of industries by investing in renewable energy sources such as solar, wind, and hydroelectric power. This not only ensures sustainable industrial development but also reduces dependence on fossil fuels, mitigating environmental impacts.

(viii) Strengthening Institutions: Building strong institutions and improving governance frameworks create a stable and transparent business environment. Enhancing transparency, combating corruption, and strengthening legal frameworks protect investments and promote industrial growth

(i) Sparse Population: Rural settlements in tropical Africa tend to have a relatively low population density compared to urban areas. The population is often scattered across vast areas of land, with larger distances between individual households or villages.

(ii) Agricultural economy: Rural settlements in tropical Africa are predominantly agrarian, with agriculture being the primary economic activity. People rely on subsistence farming, livestock rearing, and small-scale agricultural production for their livelihoods.

(iii) Traditional housing: Rural settlements often have traditional housing structures made of locally available materials such as mud, thatch, or wood. These structures are designed to suit the local climate and cultural preferences.

(iv) Limited infrastructure: Rural settlements in tropical Africa often lack adequate infrastructure compared to urban areas. Basic amenities like electricity, clean water supply, healthcare facilities, and transportation networks may be limited or lacking altogether.

(v) Close-knit communities: Rural settlements typically have close-knit communities with strong social ties and communal values. People often live in extended family units and engage in collective activities such as farming, celebrations, and community decision-making.

(vi) Limited access to services: Due to their remote locations, rural settlements may have limited access to essential services such as education, healthcare, and government institutions. Access to quality education and healthcare facilities may be inadequate, resulting in challenges for rural residents.

(vii) Traditional social systems: Rural settlements in tropical Africa often have traditional social structures and systems that play a significant role in community life. This includes kinship systems, communal decision-making processes, and the influence of local chiefs or elders in governance and dispute resolution.

(i) Technology and information: Urban areas often serve as centers of technological advancement and information dissemination. Rural settlements rely on urban areas for access to modern technologies, internet connectivity, and information resources that can enhance agricultural practices, education, healthcare, and overall development.

(ii) Education and healthcare: Urban areas typically have better educational and healthcare facilities compared to rural settlements. Rural residents often depend on urban schools, colleges, and universities for higher education, and they may travel to urban centers to access specialized healthcare services.

(iii) Market access: Rural settlements rely on urban settlements as market centers for selling their agricultural produce and acquiring necessary goods and services that are not available locally. Urban centers act as economic hubs where rural farmers can sell their surplus produce and purchase items they cannot produce themselves.

(iv) Supply of goods and services: Rural settlements depend on urban settlements for the supply of goods and services that are not available in rural areas. This includes items like machinery, fertilizers, construction materials, healthcare services, and educational resources.

(v) Employment opportunities: Many rural inhabitants depend on urban settlements for employment opportunities. People may migrate from rural areas to urban areas in search of better job prospects and higher wages, particularly in non-agricultural sectors such as manufacturing, construction, and services.

(vi)  Transportation and logistics: Urban areas provide transportation networks and logistics services that facilitate the movement of goods and people between rural and urban settlements. Rural communities rely on urban transportation systems for the shipment of agricultural produce, the transportation of essential goods, and the movement of people.

(vii) Infrastructure development: Urban areas are often the hubs of infrastructure development. Rural settlements rely on urban centers for the construction and maintenance of roads, bridges, electricity grids, telecommunications networks, and other vital infrastructure.

(viii)  Government services and administration: Rural settlements often depend on urban settlements for government services and administration. Government offices, educational institutions, healthcare facilities, and other essential services are usually concentrated in urban areas. Rural residents may need to travel to urban centers to access these services or engage with government institutions

(PICK ANY FOUR)

(i) Efficient Movement of Goods: Rail transportation allows for the efficient movement of goods across long distances. It can accommodate large quantities of cargo, making it an ideal mode of transport for industries such as agriculture, mining, and manufacturing in tropical Africa. This efficiency helps stimulate trade and economic growth.

(ii) Reduced Congestion: Compared to road transportation, rail systems help alleviate congestion on major highways. By diverting a significant portion of freight traffic to rail, the congestion on roads is reduced, resulting in smoother traffic flow, decreased travel times, and improved road safety.

(iii) Lower Environmental Impact: Rail transportation is more environmentally friendly compared to road transport. Trains emit less carbon dioxide per ton of freight compared to trucks, reducing greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. This advantage is crucial for tropical Africa’s sustainability efforts and can contribute to mitigating climate change impacts.

(iv) Enhanced Connectivity: Rail networks provide enhanced connectivity by linking remote areas and cities, facilitating economic integration and regional development. They enable access to markets, resources, and employment opportunities, boosting trade, tourism, and economic activities across tropical Africa.

(v) Increased Accessibility: Rail systems provide reliable and accessible transportation for both passengers and goods. They offer a cost-effective means of travel, making it easier for people to commute between cities and towns, visit tourist destinations, and access essential services such as healthcare and education. This accessibility helps bridge the gap between rural and urban areas.

(vi) Job Creation: Developing rail infrastructure in tropical Africa generates employment opportunities in various sectors. From construction and maintenance to operation and management, rail projects create jobs for engineers, technicians, drivers, station staff, and support personnel. This job creation contributes to economic development and poverty reduction.

(vii) Long-term Cost Savings: While initial investments in rail infrastructure may be significant, in the long run, rail transport can be cost-effective. Railways have lower operating costs compared to road transport due to lower fuel consumption, reduced vehicle maintenance, and decreased road damage. These cost savings can be beneficial for both businesses and governments.

(PICK ANY THREE)

(i) Insufficient Infrastructure: Many countries in tropical Africa have outdated and inadequate rail infrastructure. The existing rail networks often suffer from poor maintenance, outdated technology, and insufficient capacity. This results in slower speeds, frequent breakdowns, and limited connectivity, hindering the smooth movement of goods and passengers.

(ii) Funding Constraints: Lack of adequate funding is a major challenge for rail projects in tropical Africa. Limited financial resources lead to delays in infrastructure upgrades, repairs, and expansion, hampering the overall efficiency of rail transportation.

(iii) Inadequate Maintenance: Due to financial constraints and lack of technical expertise, rail infrastructure in tropical Africa often suffers from inadequate maintenance. This results in deteriorating tracks, bridges, and signaling systems, leading to frequent disruptions, delays, and safety concerns.

(iv) Lack of Interconnectivity: Many rail networks in tropical Africa suffer from a lack of interconnectivity, limiting their reach and effectiveness. Incomplete or fragmented rail systems make it challenging to transport goods seamlessly across different regions, hindering economic integration and trade.

(v) Inefficient Operations: Inefficient operations and management practices contribute to the problems facing rail transportation in tropical Africa. Factors such as outdated technology, inadequate training of staff, and suboptimal scheduling and coordination lead to delays, inefficiencies, and reduced service quality.

(vi) Insecurity: Rail transportation in tropical Africa often faces security challenges such as vandalism, theft, and sabotage. These incidents not only disrupt operations but also pose risks to the safety of passengers and cargo.

(PICK ANY THREE, MAKE SURE IT IS SAME WITH WHAT YOU PICKED IN 3b)

(i) Insufficient Infrastructure: Increased investment in rail infrastructure by seeking partnerships with international organizations, private sector entities, and foreign investors can provide the necessary funding for infrastructure upgrades, expansion, and modernization, thereby improving the capacity and quality of rail networks.

(ii)  Funding Constraints: Governments can offer incentives and create a conducive business environment to encourage private sector participation.

(iii) Inadequate Maintenance: Government should establish a dedicated maintenance fund for rail infrastructure, ensuring a regular and sufficient budget allocation for maintenance activities and also train and employ skilled maintenance personnel.

(iv) Lack of Interconnectivity: Improved coordination and planning are required to enhance interconnectivity between different rail lines and modes of transport.

(v) Inefficient Operations: Implementing modern management practices, training programs, and technological upgrades can address these issues.

(vi) Insecurity: Strengthening security measures, implementing surveillance systems, and increasing law enforcement presence can help mitigate these risks.

(4a) (PICK ANY ONE) Internal trade refers to the exchange of goods, services, and resources within the boundaries of a particular country or region. It involves commercial transactions and economic activities conducted between individuals, businesses, or entities located within the same country or geographic area.

Internal trade refers to the buying and selling of goods and services within the geographical boundaries of a country. It involves the exchange of goods and services between different regions, states or cities within the country.

(4b) (PICK ANY FIVE) (i) Poor Trade Facilitation: Inefficient trade facilitation processes, including cumbersome documentation requirements, lack of harmonization in trade regulations across states, and delays in clearing goods at ports and borders, increase transaction costs and hinder internal trade.

(ii) High Cost of Finance: Limited access to affordable credit and high interest rates make it difficult for small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) to access capital for business expansion and investment in internal trade.

(iii) Poor infrastructure: Nigeria’s poor road network, insufficient transport systems, and inadequate storage facilities make it difficult to move goods from one location to another, resulting in delays, high transportation costs, and damage to goods.

(iv) Inconsistent Policies and Regulations: Frequent changes in policies and regulations at various levels of government create uncertainty and hamper trade activities. Inconsistent policies can result in confusion, compliance difficulties, and discourage investment in the country.

(v) Multiple taxation: The multiplicity of taxes imposed on traders, including local government levies, state taxes, and federal duties, makes trading in Nigeria very expensive, reducing profitability for traders.

(vi) Corruption: Bribery and extortion of traders by government officials, security forces, and market leaders have been a persistent problem in Nigeria, discouraging many from engaging in formal internal trade.

(vii) Insecurity: Insurgency, banditry, and other forms of violence in different parts of Nigeria have adversely affected internal trade, discouraging traders from entering certain regions, causing loss of life and property, and disrupting supply chains.

(viii) Multiple Checkpoints and Roadblocks: Excessive checkpoints, roadblocks, and extortion by security personnel pose significant challenges to internal trade. These checkpoints cause delays, corruption, and raise the cost of doing business.

(ix) Inefficient Customs Procedures: Cumbersome customs procedures, including excessive paperwork and delays in clearing goods, hinder the smooth flow of trade within Nigeria. This leads to increased transaction costs and negatively affects the competitiveness of local businesses.

(4c) (PICK ANY FOUR) (i) Revenue Generation: Internal trade generates revenue for the government through taxes, duties, and other levies imposed on trade activities. These revenues can be used to fund infrastructure development, social welfare programs, and other public services, contributing to the overall socio-economic development of the country

(ii) Social Integration: Internal trade promotes social integration by connecting people from different regions and cultures within Nigeria. It facilitates the exchange of ideas, knowledge, and cultural practices, fostering unity and a sense of national identity. It also helps to reduce regional disparities and promotes social cohesion.

(iii) Diversification of Economy: Internal trade promotes the diversification of the Nigerian economy. It allows for the exchange of a wide range of goods and services, which encourages the development of various sectors, such as agriculture, manufacturing, and services. This diversification reduces dependence on a single industry, making the economy more resilient to external shocks.

(iv) Encourages Investment: A vibrant internal trade environment attracts domestic and foreign investment. When businesses have access to a large and diverse market, they are more likely to invest in expanding their operations, building infrastructure, and creating employment opportunities. This, in turn, drives economic growth and development.

(v) Economic growth: Internal trade drives economic growth by promoting the exchange of goods and services between regions, stimulating competition, encouraging innovation, and creating jobs.

(vi) Market Efficiency: Internal trade helps to create a more efficient market by facilitating the movement of goods from areas of surplus to areas of demand. This ensures that products are available at competitive prices throughout the country, reducing regional disparities and ensuring optimal allocation of resources.

(vii) Poverty reduction: Internal trade provides income and employment opportunities for many Nigerians, particularly those in the informal sector, helping to reduce poverty in the country.

(viii) Regional integration: Internal trade promotes regional integration by encouraging the exchange of goods and services between different regions, enhancing economic cooperation and social cohesion.

(ix) Enhanced food security: Internal trade promotes access to food in different regions, ensuring that people have enough food to eat, no matter where they live. This is particularly important in times of food shortages or when certain foods are unavailable in a particular region.

geography waec essay answer 2022

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Note: The questions below are for practice.

1. Villages develop into urban centres when they ____ A. attract more people B. produce enough food C. establish educational institutions D. grow in commerce and industry.

2. By how many times will a map measuring 12cm by 7cm be enlarged to make its area 336cm2? A. Twice B. Three times C. Four times D. Five times.

3. Eluviation is the process by which _______ A. Soluble substances are removed from the upper layers of the soil B. soluble substances are deposited in the upper layers of the soil C. fine particles are removed from one layer of the soil to another D. fine particles are deposited in the upper layers of the soil.

4. Transhumance is the seasonal migration of livestock ______ A. from the lowlands to the uplands B. from the north to the south following the rains C. in the semiarid steppes D. in search of water and pasture.

5. Variations in the lengths of day and night over the earth’s surface are due to the _____ A. earth’s inclination to the sun and its revolution B. earth’s inclination to the sun and its rotation C. length of the earth’s orbit D. thickness of the earth’s atmosphere.

6. The progressive widening of joints and cracks in limestone by solutions, initially leads to the formation of ______ A. grikes and clints B. stalactites and stalagmites C. caves and caverns D. cliffs and dry valleys.

7. When condensation occurs in a rising air mass, latent heat is _____ A. absorbed by carbon dioxide B. lost to the atmosphere C. stored in the water molecules D. released as sensible heat.

8. Two cloud types of great vertical extent that produce much rainfall are _____ A. cumulus and stratus B. cumulus and cumulo-nimbus C. cumulo-nimbus and nimbostratus D. strato-cumulus and nimbo-stratus.

9. The cheapest means of transport for long distance travel is by _____ A. rail B. water C. air D. road.

10. If the distance between two points on a map with scale 1: 50,000 is 35mm, what is the distance between them on the ground? A. 1.50 km B. 1.55 km C. 1.75 km D. 1.85 km.

11. If a map has a scale of 1: 50,000 and a cocoa plantation is represented on the map by a rectangle 5 cm by 4 cm, what is the area of the plantation? A. 5 km2 B.6km2 C. 20km2 D. 25km2.

See: WAEC Further Mathematics Questions and Answer

12. On which of the following pairs of dates is the length of day and night equal on the earth’s surface? A. June 21st and September 21st B. March 22nd and December 22nd C. June 21st and December 22nd D. March 21st and September 23rd.

13. Lakes formed as a result of landslides, screes or avalanches are known as _____ A. man-made lakes B. barrier lakes C. caldera lakes D. rock-hollow lakes.

14. Which of the following is a major environmental problem in heavily industrialized regions? A. Accelerated erosion B. Water pollution C. Frost damage D. acid rain.

15. The crossing of a boundary between two countries by a migrant is best described as ____ A. emigration B. Immigration C. Out-migration D. international migration.

16. A process whereby a plant community is replaced by another is known as ________ A. colonization B. succession C. competition D. consolidation.

17. The duration of sunshine is measured by the ______ A. aneroid barometer B. Campbell-Stokes recorder C. cup-anemometer D. minimum-maximum thermometers.

18. Quartz, feldspar and mica are three principal minerals that can easily be seen in _____ A. basalt B. coal C. granite D. limestone.

19. The rock with the least carbon content is ______ A. Coal B. Sandstone C. marble D. lignite.

20. The process by which organic matter is decomposed and synthesized to form part of the soil is known as ______ A. humification B. mineralization C. laterization D. nitrification.

21. Which of the following groups consists of energy resources? A. Petroleum, uranium and manganese B. Coal, bauxite and uranium C. Water, copper and sun D. Coal, petroleum and water.

22. A piece of evidence that confirms that the earth is spherical is _______ A. Standard time B. solar system C. earth’s orbit D. moon’s eclipse.

23. A tremendous pressure or temperature change may lead to the formation of ______ A. limestone B. granite C. gneiss D. clay.

24.  Which of the following sources of power supply is renewable? A. Solar B. Coal C. Gas D. Nuclear.

25. Hygrometer is used to measure ______ A. rainfall B. wind direction C. relative humidity D. sunshine.

26. The largest ocean in the world is the _______ A. Atlantic Ocean B. Indian Ocean C. Arctic Ocean D. Pacific Ocean.

27. Rock minerals are said to be crystalline when the atoms forming them are _______ A. found in sedimentary rocks B. found in crystalline rocks C. arranged in definite pattern D. arranged vertically.

28. The difference in time between two longitudes is approximately ______ A. 15 hours B. 40 minutes C. 4 hours D. 4 minutes.

29. A slope is said to be even when the contours are _________ A. equally spaced B. concentric C. closely spaced D. irregularly spaced.

See: WAEC Computer Studies Questions and Answers

WAEC Geography Questions and Answers Essay and Objectives 2023 (Expo)

The above questions are not exactly 2023 WAEC Geography questions and answers but likely WAEC Geography repeated questions and answers.

These questions are strictly for practice. The 2023 WAEC Geography expo will be posted on this page on the day of the WAEC Geography examination. Keep checking and reloading this page for the answers.

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Tips to Help You Pass Your 2023 WAEC Geography Examination

Tip 1: study hard.

It is a known fact that academic success is directly proportional to hard work provided prayer is kept constant. Read your books as if it is the only thing you have to do while preparing for your WAEC examination.

Recommended:

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Tip 2: Read Past Questions on WASSCE Geography

You can attest to the fact that the West African Examination Council (WAEC) always repeats its questions annually.

Reading the WAEC Geography past questions will expose you to the things you are expected to know as a WAEC candidate.

Sometimes, we read our textbooks and still don’t know which area to focus on. WAEC Geography past question will tell you the areas to concentrate on.

If you have any questions about  WAEC Geography Questions and Answers 2023 , kindly drop your question in the comment box.

Last Updated on June 2, 2023 by Admin

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Free WAEC Expo 2022 Questions and Answers for all Subjects

Free waec expo 2022 questions and answers are now available. see the best waec expo runs that will help boost your score and your overall performance in the 2022 waec examination below. we provide the correct wassce questions and answers for all ssce science, art, and commercial students. read on to find out how to […] the post free waec expo 2022 questions and answers for all subjects appeared first on study forum..

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Free WAEC expo 2022 questions and answers are now available. See the best WAEC expo runs that will help boost your score and your overall performance in the 2022 WAEC examination below.

We provide the correct WASSCE questions and answers for all SSCE science, art, and commercial students. Read on to find out how to get the 2022 WAEC expo questions and answers.

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Whether you are searching for free WAEC expo 2022, the best Waec expo runs, WAEC exam runz, 2022 WAEC expo runz, correct WAEC answers 2022, or WAEC questions and answers 2022, you will get all the questions and their accurate answers for each of your subject to help boost your performance.

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WAEC Expo/Runz 2022

The 2022 WAEC timetable is out and the WASSCE examination will soon commerce. All students are advised to take note of their dates and time for each of their subjects.

Therefore, it is important for you to prepare for the examination in order to pass all the subjects and avoid the stress of re-writing the examination next year.

Our team of experts is working tirelessly to ensure all questions are correctly solved and uploaded on this portal before the day of examination. So we advised you to bookmark or save this page and refresh it regularly in order not to miss out.

WAEC Expo Questions And Answers 2022

The WAEC expo 2022 questions and answers for all subjects are provided here for free. All you have to do is to follow the instructions on how to get the 2022 WAEC expo answers. Subjects in the Series include:

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As we said before, you don’t have to worry about the 2022 WAEC answers for any of your preferred subjects (objective, essay, and practical). The WAEC expo answers 2022 for all subjects will be uploaded any moment from now. All you need to do is to keep refreshing this page so as not to miss out.

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WAEC Geography 2023 Essay/Objective Questions and Answers

Get free Verified WAEC Geography Questions and Answers 2023.  WAEC May/June Free Geography EXPO answers.  West African Examinations Council Geography Theory and Objective Answers for you to have good WAEC result.  You will also understand how WAEC Geography questions are set and how to answer them. The West African Examinations Council is an examination board saddled with the responsibility of setting, testing and conducting WASSCE in all West African country.

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geography waec essay answer 2022

2023-WAEC-GEOGRAPHY-PRACT-ANSWERS! (1)

geography waec essay answer 2022

(3a) (i) Winter. (ii) Spring. (iii) Autumn. (iv) Summer.

(3b) (PICK TWO(2) FROM EACH AND WRITE) [TABULATE] (UNDER LOCAL TIME) (i) Local time varies from one longitude to another at the rate of 4 minutes per degree of longitude. (ii) Local time varies from place to place within a time zone.

(UNDER STANDARD TIME) (i) Standard time varies from one time zone to another one hourly basis of 15° of longitude to 1 hour. (ii) It maintains the central time for time zone in which they are.

geography waec essay answer 2022

(CHECK THE DIAGRAM ABOVE AND WRITE THIS UNDER) Solar Eclipse: This occurs when the moon comes in between the sun and the earth, in a perfect straight line. The moon is capable of blocking the light from the sun. The moon then casts its shadow of darkness on the earth.

(4ai) (i) Rugged topography (ii) Absence of surface drainage (iii) Depression of varying sizes an d depths

(4aii) (i) Cave systems (ii) Underground Lakes and Springs (iii) Sinkholes (iv) Stalactites and stalagmites

(4b) (i) Rich in Mineral Resources: Limestone regions are often abundant in mineral resources. Limestone itself is a valuable rock used in construction, agriculture, and industry. Limestone regions may contain deposits of other minerals such as coal, iron, zinc, and phosphates, which contribute to economic development.

(ii) Fertile Soil: Limestone weathering over time produces fertile soil with high calcium carbonate content. This type of soil is ideal for agriculture, as it provides essential nutrients and helps maintain soil pH levels. Limestone regions often support productive farmland and vibrant ecosystems.

(iii) Water Storage and Supply: Limestone is highly permeable, allowing water to pass through and form underground aquifers. These aquifers act as natural reservoirs, storing water and ensuring a reliable water supply in limestone regions. The porous nature of limestone also facilitates groundwater recharge and reduces surface water runoff, contributing to sustainable water management.

(iv) Scientific exploration: Limestone regions are known for their unique karst landscapes, characterized by sinkholes, underground rivers, and caves. These features provide opportunities for scientific exploration and serves as natural habitats for specialized flora and fauna.

(5a) (i) Solution: This is the process by which soluble minerals are dissolved in the water and carried along by the river. The dissolved minerals include calcium, magnesium, and sodium.

(ii) Suspension: This is the process by which small particles such as sand, silt, and clay are carried along by the river. These particles are suspended in the water and can be seen as a cloud of sediment.

(iii) Bedload: This is the process by which larger particles such as pebbles, cobbles, and boulders are carried along the riverbed by rolling, bouncing, or sliding. Bedload is the slowest process of river transportation, as it requires more energy to move larger particles.

(5b) (i) Wider channel: The channel of the river is wider than in the upper course, and the river is deeper and has a higher volume of water.

(ii) Meanders: The river flows in a winding path, creating meanders. The river also has a lower gradient, which means the water flows more slowly.

(iii) Floodplains: The river has a wider floodplain, which is the flat area of land surrounding the river. The floodplain is often fertile and used for agriculture.

(iv) Tributaries: The river is fed by many tributaries, which are smaller streams that flow into the main river. This increases the volume of water in the river.

geography waec essay answer 2022

(CHECK THE DIAGRAM ABOVE AND WRITE THIS BELOW) Interlocking Spur: This refers to the portion of the valley wall which projects from both sides of the concave bends of the river as it meanders. They usually obscure the view of the river valley.

(6a) Climate refers to the long-term average weather conditions of a particular region or area. It is determined by various factors such as temperature, precipitation, humidity, wind patterns, and atmospheric pressure, which persist over a significant period, typically for several decades or more.

(6b) (i) Solar radiation (ii) Atmospheric composition (iii) Ocean currents (iv) Land and water distribution (v) Altitude and topography

(6c) (i) High Temperature: Equatorial regions experience consistently high temperatures throughout the year. Average temperatures range between 25 to 30 degrees Celsius (77 to 86 degrees Fahrenheit). There is minimal seasonal variation in temperature, and it remains relatively constant year-round.

(ii) High Precipitation: Equatorial regions receive abundant rainfall, resulting in a high level of precipitation. Rainfall is evenly distributed throughout the year, with no distinct dry season.

(iii) High Humidity: Equatorial climates are characterized by high humidity levels. The combination of high temperatures and abundant rainfall leads to a significant amount of moisture in the air. Relative humidity often exceeds 80%, creating a warm and moist environment.

(iv) Dense Vegetation: The equatorial climate fosters the growth of lush and diverse vegetation, including tropical rainforests. The consistent warmth, ample rainfall, and high humidity provide ideal conditions for the growth of a wide variety of plant species. The dense vegetation contributes to the rich biodiversity found in equatorial regions.

(7a) weathering: Weathering is the disintegration or decomposition of rocks in situ by physical, chemical or biological processes

(7bi) Frost action; weathering is an umbrella term used to describe mechanical weathering processes that break down rock from freezing and thawing action. It includes frost wedging, frost shattering, and cryofracturing, all terms that incorporate this process.

(7bii) Exfoliation; If a large intrusion is brought to the surface through tectonic uplift and the erosion of overlying rocks, the confining pressure above the intrusion has been released, but the pressure underneath is still being exerted, forcing the rock to expand.

(8a) Solar energy refers to the radiant energy emitted by the Sun, which can be harnesses and converted into useful forms of energy such as heat and electricity using photovoltaic cells or solar thermal collectors.

(8b) (i) Renewable and Sustainable: Solar energy is a clean and abundant source of energy that does not deplete natural resources and does not emit harmful pollutants into the environment. This makes it a sustainable and environmentally friendly energy source.

(ii) Cost-effective: Once installed, solar energy systems require very little maintenance or operating costs. As the cost of solar technology continues to decrease, it has become increasingly affordable for individuals and businesses to invest in solar energy systems.

(iii) Energy Independence: Solar energy provides a level of energy independence that is not possible with traditional fossil fuel-based energy sources. It allows individuals and communities to generate their own power and reduces their dependence on centralized power grids.

(8c) (i) Intermittent Energy Source: Solar energy is an intermittent energy source, meaning it is only available during daylight hours and may vary depending on weather conditions. Energy storage systems such as batteries or pumped hydro storage can be used to overcome this challenge and provide a continuous flow of energy.

(ii) High Initial Costs: Although solar energy is cost-effective in the long run, the initial investment required to install solar panels and other equipment can be high, which may deter some individuals or businesses from investing in solar energy systems.

(iii) Land Use and Environmental Impact: Solar energy systems require a significant amount of land to generate large amounts of electricity, which can potentially impact natural habitats and wildlife. Additionally, the production and disposal of solar panels and other equipment can have environmental impacts if not properly managed.

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geography waec essay answer 2022

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geography waec essay answer 2022

WAEC Releases Results Of First Computer-Based WASSCE (Cb-Wassce) For Private Candidates, 2024-First Series: Full Text

T he West African Examinations Council (WAEC), Nigeria, wishes to announce to candidates, stakeholders, and the general public that the results of the first-ever Computer-Based West African Senior School Certificate Examination (CB- WASSCE) for Private Candidates, 2024–First Series, have been released.

Recall that the Council, in line with emerging best practices and continuous quest for excellence in its service delivery, commenced migration from the traditional Paper-Based Examinations (PBE) to Computer-Based Examinations (CBE) for its Private Candidates examinations.

The novel CB-WASSCE entailed using a hybrid method where all questions were projected on the computer.

Whereas the answers to the multiple-choice questions were supplied on the computer real-time, answers to the essay and test of practical questions were supplied in booklets given to the candidates.

The examination was conducted between Wednesday, January 31 and Saturday, February 17, 2024. The Coordination of Examiners and Marking of Candidates’ Scripts were carried out at three Marking Venues in Lagos, Enugu and Kaduna from March 1 to 16, 2024.

A total of 459Examiners participated in the Coordination and Marking Exercise.

8362 candidates showed a 4.30% decrease in candidature when compared with the 2023 AND THIRTY-EIGHT (8,738). EIGHT THOUSAND, ONE HUNDRED AND THIRTY entry figure of 8,139candidates sat the examination at 140 CBTcentres spread across the country.

Amongst the candidates that sat the examination, 21candidates, with varying degrees of Special Needs, were registered for the examination. Out of this number, NINE (9) were visually challenged, TWO (2) had impaired hearing and TWO (2)were Albinos.

All these candidates with special needs were adequately catered for in the administration of the examination.

Of the total number of candidates that sat the examination, 3,862were male while 4,277were female, representing 47.45 % and 52.55%,respectively.

Out of the total number of candidates that sat the examination, 8,006 ) candidates, representing 98.37%have their results fully processed and released while133candidates, representing 1.63 % have a few of their subjects still being processed due to some errors traceable to them.

However, efforts are being made to speedily complete the processing to enable all the affected candidates to get their results fully processed and released, subsequently.

The analysis of candidates’ performance showed that out of the 8,139 candidates that sat the examination:

3,424 candidates representing 42.07 % obtained credit and above in a minimum of FIVE subjects (with or without English Language and/or Mathematics);

2,519 candidates representing30.95%obtained credit and above in a minimum of FIVE subjects, including English Language and Mathematics.

Of this number, 1,286 , that is, 51.05%were male candidates, while ONE THOUSAND, TWO HUNDRED AND THIRTY-THREE (1,233), i.e. 48.95%were female candidates.

The percentage of candidates in this category in WASSCE for Private Candidates, 2022 and 2023 – First Series, that is, those who obtained credit and above in a minimum of five (5) subjects, including English Language and Mathematics, were 26.32 % and 23.99 % respectively.

Thus, there is a marginal increase of 6.96 % in performance in this regard.

SIXTY-FIVE candidates’ results, representing 0 . 80 % of the total number of candidates that sat the examination, are being withheld for various reported cases of examination malpractice.

Comparatively, the reported cases of FOUR HUNDREDANDTHIRTEEN (413 ) candidates or 4.95% recorded for WASSCE for Private Candidates, 2023-First Series evidently reveal that the method of examination administration drastically reduced examination malpractices.

These reported cases are being investigated and reports of the investigations will be presented to the appropriate Committee of the Council for consideration. Thereafter, the Committee’s decisions will be communicated directly to the affected candidates. Meanwhile, candidates whose results are being held/withheld can apply for redress by visiting to register their complaints.

Candidates may check their results by visiting to ascertain their status before visiting the Digital Certificate platform () to access the digital copies of their certificates, which have been released along with their results. Candidates will be required to apply for the printing of the hard copies of their certificates online, through the WAEC Certificate Request Portal (e-Certman). The portal address is .

WAEC-Nigeria would like to congratulate all candidates who have worked hard and achieved great results. Our profound gratitude also goes to the government at all levels, Security Agencies, Ministries of Education, Staff, Supervisors, Invigilators, Custodians, Examiners, and other Ad-hoc personnel who, despite all odds, availed the Council of their services in ensuring the successful conduct of the examination and marking of scripts. The results are a testament to their dedication and hard work. We wish all the candidates the best in their future endeavours.

Once again, we assure all our stakeholders of our dedication and commitment to excellent service delivery.

Signed by: Moyosola F. Adesina (Ag. Head, Public Affairs)

For: Head of National Office

Issued by the Public Affairs Department on – Friday, 22nd March, 2024

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Paul Krugman

What’s the Matter With Ohio?

geography waec essay answer 2022

By Paul Krugman

Opinion Columnist

For many years, Ohio has been thought of as a bellwether state: With rare exceptions, whoever won Ohio in a presidential election won the nation as a whole. But in 2020 , Donald Trump won Ohio by about eight points even as Joe Biden led the national popular vote by more than four points and, of course, won the Electoral College vote.

Then Ohio’s 2022 Senate election was won by J.D. Vance, who has staked out a hard-line ideological position that may be more thoroughly MAGA than that of Trump himself. And in Tuesday’s Republican Senate primary, Trump’s endorsement was enough to propel Bernie Moreno, a former car dealer who has never held elected office, to victory over the preferred candidates of the state’s relatively moderate Republican establishment.

So I’ve been trying to understand what happened to Ohio, and what it can teach us about America’s future. My short answer is that the United States of America has become the Disconnected States of America, on several levels.

Once upon a time, Ohio’s bellwether status could be explained by the fact that in some sense it looked like America. These days, no state really looks like America because the economic fortunes of different regions have diverged so drastically. And Ohio has found itself on the losing side of that divergence.

You might expect Ohio voters to support politicians whose policies would help reverse this relative decline. But there’s a striking disconnect between who voters, especially working-class white voters, perceive as being on their side and politicians’ actual policies. For that matter, as I wrote earlier this week, there’s a striking disconnect between voters’ views of what is happening with the economy and their personal experiences. It’s vibes all the way down.

OK, some facts.

One quick way to see the divergence in regional fortunes is to compare per capita income of a given state with income in a relatively rich state like Massachusetts. During the generation-long boom that followed World War II, Ohio and Massachusetts were basically tied. Since around 1980, however, Ohio has been on a long relative slide; its income is now about a third less than that of Massachusetts.

A lot of this has to do with the loss of well-paid manufacturing jobs. There are considerably fewer manufacturing jobs in Ohio than there used to be, partly because of foreign competition, including the famous “ China shock ” — the surge of Chinese imports between the late 1990s and around 2010 that resulted in manufacturing job losses — although deindustrialization has been happening almost everywhere, even in Germany , which runs huge trade surpluses.

And wages for production workers in Ohio have lagged behind inflation for 20 years. That probably has a lot to do with the collapse of unions, which used to represent a quarter of Ohio’s private-sector workers, but are vanishing from the scene.

More broadly, the 21st-century economy has favored metropolitan areas with highly educated work forces; Ohio, with its relatively low share of college-educated adults , has been left behind.

So it makes sense for Ohio voters to feel disgruntled. But again, you might have expected disgruntled voters to support politicians actually trying to address the state’s problems. The Biden administration certainly hoped that its industrial policies, which have led to a surge in manufacturing investment, would win over more blue-collar voters. You might also have expected Democrats to get some dividend from the fact that unemployment in Ohio is now significantly lower than it was under Trump, even before the Covid-19 pandemic struck. But that doesn’t seem to have happened.

What about Trump? In most ways he governed as a conventional right-wing Republican, among other things trying to reverse the success of Obamacare, which had greatly reduced the percentage of Ohioans without health insurance . Trump did, however, break with G.O.P. orthodoxy by launching a trade war, with substantial tariffs on some manufactured imports.

In economic terms, the trade war failed. A new paper , whose authors include the authors of the original China shock analysis, confirms the results of other studies finding that the Trump tariffs didn’t raise manufacturing employment. The authors go further by breaking down the regional effects and find specifically that the trade war “has not provided economic help to the U.S. heartland.”

Yet, they found, the trade war appears to have been a political success. Regions whose industries were protected by tariffs became more likely to vote for Trump and Republicans in general, even though the tariffs didn’t result in a boost to employment. This, as the authors rather discreetly note, is “consistent with expressive views of politics.” That is, in 2020, many working-class voters in Ohio and elsewhere saw Trump as being on their side even though his policies didn’t help them. And if you look at some of today’s polling , it appears that they refuse to give President Biden credit for policies that actually do help workers.

I’m not making a prediction for November. Perceptions of the economy have improved , even if they’re still somewhat depressed. So the economy may be good enough for other issues, like reproductive rights, to carry Biden over the top.

But it’s still disturbing to see just how disconnected views about politicians have become from what those politicians really do.

The Times is committed to publishing a diversity of letters to the editor. We’d like to hear what you think about this or any of our articles. Here are some tips . And here’s our email: [email protected] .

Follow the New York Times Opinion section on Facebook , Instagram , TikTok , WhatsApp , X and Threads .

Paul Krugman has been an Opinion columnist since 2000 and is also a distinguished professor at the City University of New York Graduate Center. He won the 2008 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences for his work on international trade and economic geography. @ PaulKrugman

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  25. Opinion

    Then Ohio's 2022 Senate election was won by J.D. Vance, who has staked out a hard-line ideological position that may be more thoroughly MAGA than that of Trump himself.